## High-Yield Matrix: 15 Women Members of the Constituent Assembly of India | No. | Name | Key Contribution / Area of Work | Important Fact to Remember | |---:|---|---|---| | 1 | Ammu Swaminathan | Women’s participation in public life and social reform | One of the 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly | | 2 | Annie Mascarene | Political representation and public affairs | Played a role in India’s early democratic development | | 3 | Begum Aizaz Rasul | Constitutional debates and minority-related issues | The only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly | | 4 | Dakshayani Velayudhan | Social equality and the removal of caste discrimination | The first Dalit woman to become a member of the Constituent Assembly | | 5 | Durgabai Deshmukh | Social welfare, education and women’s development | Later became associated with major social welfare initiatives | | 6 | Hansa Mehta | Women’s rights, equality and education | Known internationally for her work on women’s rights and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights | | 7 | Kamla Chaudhri | Social reform and women’s participation in public life | One of the women who contributed to the Constituent Assembly | | 8 | Leela Roy | Women’s education and nationalist activities | Known for her work in education and social reform | | 9 | Malati Choudhury | Rural development, education and social service | Associated with Gandhian constructive work and public service | | 10 | Purnima Banerjee | Nationalist activities and political participation | Participated in the work of the Constituent Assembly | | 11 | Rajkumari Amrit Kaur | Public health, social welfare and women’s rights | Became India’s first Health Minister after independence | | 12 | Renuka Ray | Women’s rights, social legislation and welfare | Advocated reforms relating to women and social justice | | 13 | Sarojini Naidu | Nationalism, civil rights and women’s participation | Became the first woman Governor of an Indian state after independence | | 14 | Sucheta Kripalani | Freedom struggle and democratic politics | Became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state | | 15 | Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit | Diplomacy, public service and women’s leadership | Later became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly | ### Key Exam Takeaways - The Constituent Assembly included **15 women members**. - **Dakshayani Velayudhan** is remembered for her role in advancing social equality and challenging caste discrimination. - **Hansa Mehta** is associated with women’s rights and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. - **Rajkumari Amrit Kaur** became India’s first Health Minister. - **Sucheta Kripalani** became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state. - **Sarojini Naidu** became the first woman Governor of an Indian state. - **Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit** became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly. **Exam Tip:** Remember each member’s name alongside one distinctive contribution or later achievement. Verify specific constitutional roles and historical details against authoritative sources before using them as definitive exam facts.

The Indian Constitution is the foundation of the country's democratic system. Its creation involved extensive debates on fundamental rights, equality, citizenship, social justice and the structure of government. Among the members who participated in this historic process were 15 women whose contributions helped shape India's constitutional and democratic journey.

These women came from different regions and social backgrounds. They included freedom fighters, educationists, lawyers, political leaders and social reformers. Their work brought important perspectives on women's rights, caste discrimination, education, public health and equal citizenship into national discussions.

This article explores the complete list of the 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly, their contributions, important historical facts and practice questions for government exam preparation.

1. List of the 15 Women Members of the Constituent Assembly

The following list is based on the publication of the Rajya Sabha Secretariat, Selected Speeches of Women Members of the Constituent Assembly. 

The Constituent Assembly was originally established in 1946. Its membership changed following Partition in 1947. The Assembly ultimately adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.

2. Contributions of the 15 Women Members

1. Ammu Swaminathan

Ammu Swaminathan was a freedom fighter, social reformer and advocate of women's rights. She was associated with the Women's India Association, which worked to improve women's social, educational and political position.

Her participation in the Constituent Assembly reflected the importance of equal citizenship and women's participation in public life.

Key facts:

• Worked for women's rights and social reform.

• Supported women's participation in political and public institutions.

• Associated with the Women's India Association.

2. Annie Mascarene

Annie Mascarene was a freedom fighter and political leader from Travancore, now part of Kerala. She participated in the movement for responsible government and played a role in the political developments surrounding the integration of princely states.

She also participated in constitutional discussions, including matters relating to the structure and administration of the Indian Union.

Key facts:

• Associated with the political movement in Travancore.

• Participated in the freedom struggle.

• Contributed to the work of the Constituent Assembly.

3. Begum Aizaz Rasul

Begum Aizaz Rasul was the only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly. She was a prominent political figure who participated in debates concerning India's political and constitutional future.

She is also remembered for her public life after independence, including her involvement in parliamentary politics and sports administration.

Key facts:

• The only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly.

• Participated in constitutional and political discussions.

• Contributed to public life after independence.

4. Dakshayani Velayudhan

Dakshayani Velayudhan was a pioneering social reformer from Kerala and the only Dalit woman member of the Constituent Assembly. She came from a community historically subjected to caste discrimination and challenged social practices that denied people dignity and equality.

She opposed untouchability and supported the creation of a democratic society based on equal rights. Her participation was particularly significant in discussions about social justice and the position of disadvantaged communities.

Key facts:

• The only Dalit woman member of the Constituent Assembly.

• Advocated equality and human dignity.

• Opposed untouchability and caste-based discrimination.

5. Durgabai Deshmukh

Durgabai Deshmukh was a freedom fighter, lawyer and social worker. She devoted much of her life to women's education, social welfare and the rehabilitation of disadvantaged people.

She later played an important role in social development initiatives in independent India. Her work helped strengthen institutions concerned with education, welfare and women's advancement.

Key facts:

• Worked for women's education and social welfare.

• Participated in the freedom movement.

• Contributed to social development after independence.

6. Hansa Mehta

Hansa Mehta was an educationist, writer, social reformer and advocate of gender equality. She contributed to constitutional discussions concerning fundamental rights and the equal status of women.

Her international work was also significant. As a member of the United Nations Commission on Human Rights, she contributed to efforts to ensure that the Universal Declaration of Human Rights used language inclusive of both women and men.

Key facts:

• Advocated equal rights and opportunities for women.

• Participated in discussions on fundamental rights.

• Contributed to international human rights work.

7. Kamla Chaudhri

Kamla Chaudhri was a writer, freedom fighter and social worker. She participated in the nationalist movement and supported greater involvement of women in public affairs.

Her contribution represents the connection between the independence struggle and efforts to bring about wider social and political change.

Key facts:

• Associated with the freedom movement.

• Worked in social and political life.

• Supported women's participation in public affairs.

8. Leela Roy

Leela Roy, also known as Leela Nag, was an educationist, revolutionary and women's rights activist associated with Bengal. She worked to expand educational opportunities for women and encouraged their participation in nationalist activities.

Through her work with women's organisations, she contributed to political awareness and social reform.

Key facts:

• Associated with Bengal's nationalist movement.

• Promoted women's education.

• Worked for women's political and social participation.

9. Malati Choudhury

Malati Choudhury was a freedom fighter and social worker associated with Odisha. She worked on rural development, education and the welfare of disadvantaged communities.

Her public activities reflected the importance of grassroots participation and social justice in the broader process of nation-building.

Key facts:

• Participated in the freedom movement.

• Worked for rural development and social welfare.

• Associated with social reform in Odisha.

10. Purnima Banerjee

Purnima Banerjee was a freedom fighter and political activist who participated in nationalist activities. She contributed to the work of the Constituent Assembly during a period when India was defining its future political and constitutional institutions.

Her life illustrates the role of political organisers and freedom fighters in the transition from colonial rule to democratic governance.

Key facts:

• Participated in the nationalist movement.

• Contributed to the work of the Constituent Assembly.

• Associated with public and political activities.

11. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was a freedom fighter, social reformer and advocate of public health. After independence, she became India's first Union Minister of Health.

She worked to improve healthcare services and medical education. She also played an important role in efforts leading to the establishment of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in New Delhi.

Key facts:

• India's first Union Health Minister.

• Promoted public health and medical education.

• Associated with the establishment of AIIMS.

12. Renuka Ray

Renuka Ray was a freedom fighter, social worker and advocate of women's rights. She worked on questions relating to women's legal status, property rights and social equality.

Her public life was closely connected with efforts to reform laws and institutions that restricted women's opportunities.

Key facts:

• Advocated women's legal and property rights.

• Worked for social reform.

• Participated in public and political life.

13. Sarojini Naidu

Sarojini Naidu was a celebrated poet, freedom fighter and political leader. Popularly known as the Nightingale of India, she played an important role in the Indian National Movement and encouraged women's participation in the struggle for independence.

After independence, she became the Governor of the United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh, and is widely recognised as India's first woman Governor.

Key facts:

• Known as the Nightingale of India.

• Participated in the national freedom movement.

• Became India's first woman Governor.

14. Sucheta Kripalani

Sucheta Kripalani was a freedom fighter and political leader who participated in the Quit India Movement of 1942. She worked in the nationalist movement and contributed to the Constituent Assembly.

In 1963, she became the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, making her the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state.

Key facts:

• Participated in the Quit India Movement.

• Contributed to the Constituent Assembly.

• India's first woman Chief Minister.

15. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was a freedom fighter, diplomat and political leader. After independence, she represented India in international forums and helped establish India's diplomatic presence.

In 1953, she became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly, an important milestone in international diplomacy.

Key facts:

• Participated in India's freedom movement.

• Served as a diplomat.

• Became the first woman President of the UN General Assembly.

3. How Did Women Contribute to the Making of the Indian Constitution?

The contributions of women in the Constituent Assembly extended beyond representation. They brought a range of social and political experiences into discussions about India's future.

Gender equality

Women members advocated equal citizenship and legal protection. Their participation helped reinforce the principle that women should enjoy the same fundamental rights as men.

Social justice

Dakshayani Velayudhan and other members brought attention to caste discrimination, untouchability and the need to protect human dignity.

Fundamental rights

Members such as Hansa Mehta participated in debates concerning rights, equality and the constitutional status of citizens.

Education and social welfare

Several women members had worked in education, public health and social reform before independence. Their experience helped bring these issues into the wider national conversation.

Democratic participation

Their presence demonstrated that constitution-making was not solely a discussion among male political leaders. Women participated in debates and helped shape the democratic framework of the new Republic.

The Government of India's Ministry of Law and Justice published a dedicated volume on the lives and contributions of these 15 women in March 2025. <Link url="https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2109365&lang=2&reg=48" title="Read the government announcement"/>.

4. Important Facts to Remember

5. Practice Questions for Competitive Examinations

Test your understanding with these multiple-choice questions.

Question 1

How many women were members of the Constituent Assembly of India?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20

Correct Answer: C. 15

Explanation: The Constituent Assembly included 15 women members who participated in the constitution-making process.

Question 2

Who was the only Dalit woman member of the Constituent Assembly?

A. Hansa Mehta
B. Dakshayani Velayudhan
C. Durgabai Deshmukh
D. Sarojini Naidu

Correct Answer: B. Dakshayani Velayudhan

Explanation: Dakshayani Velayudhan advocated social equality and opposed caste-based discrimination.

Question 3

Who was the only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly?

A. Renuka Ray
B. Annie Mascarene
C. Begum Aizaz Rasul
D. Kamla Chaudhri

Correct Answer: C. Begum Aizaz Rasul

Explanation: Begum Aizaz Rasul was the only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 4

Which woman member is particularly associated with gender equality and international human rights work?

A. Hansa Mehta
B. Malati Choudhury
C. Leela Roy
D. Purnima Banerjee

Correct Answer: A. Hansa Mehta

Explanation: Hansa Mehta advocated gender equality and contributed to international human rights efforts.

Question 5

Who was India's first Union Minister of Health?

A. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
B. Sucheta Kripalani
C. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
D. Sarojini Naidu

Correct Answer: C. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

Explanation: Rajkumari Amrit Kaur held the Health portfolio in independent India's first government.

Question 6

Who was popularly known as the Nightingale of India?

A. Hansa Mehta
B. Sarojini Naidu
C. Dakshayani Velayudhan
D. Renuka Ray

Correct Answer: B. Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu was a prominent poet and leader of the Indian freedom movement.

Question 7

Who became India's first woman Chief Minister?

A. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
B. Sucheta Kripalani
C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
D. Durgabai Deshmukh

Correct Answer: B. Sucheta Kripalani

Explanation: Sucheta Kripalani became Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 1963.

Question 8

Who became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly?

A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Hansa Mehta
C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
D. Begum Aizaz Rasul

Correct Answer: C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Explanation: Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit held the presidency of the UN General Assembly in 1953.

6. Frequently Asked Questions

How many women were members of the Constituent Assembly of India?

There were 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly.

Who was the only Dalit woman in the Constituent Assembly?

Dakshayani Velayudhan was the only Dalit woman member of the Assembly.

Who was the only Muslim woman member?

Begum Aizaz Rasul was the only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly.

What was Hansa Mehta's contribution?

Hansa Mehta advocated gender equality and participated in discussions on fundamental rights. She also contributed to international human rights work.

Why are the women members of the Constituent Assembly important?

They brought perspectives on equality, social justice, education, public health and women's rights into India's constitutional and democratic development.

Where can readers find reliable historical information?

Readers can consult publications of the Ministry of Law and Justice, the Rajya Sabha Secretariat and the Lok Sabha Secretariat.

7. Official Sources and Further Reading

1. Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India: The Life and Contributions of the Women Members of the Constituent Assembly. Read the official announcement.

2. Rajya Sabha Secretariat: Selected Speeches of Women Members of the Constituent Assembly.
   Read the parliamentary publication.

3. Lok Sabha Secretariat: Parliamentary records documenting the participation of women in the Constituent Assembly.
   Explore the parliamentary digital library.

Conclusion

The 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly made valuable contributions to India's constitutional history. Their experiences in the freedom movement, education, social reform, public health and diplomacy helped bring a wider range of perspectives into the development of India's democratic institutions.

Learning about these women provides a deeper understanding of how the Constitution emerged from collective debate and participation. Their contributions remain an important part of India's history and the continuing pursuit of equality, justice and democratic citizenship.

1. Constitutional Philosophy and Significance

Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) embodies the Magna Carta of India. Fundamental Rights operate as negative injunctions against state overreach and positive obligations to ensure human dignity.

2. The Golden Triangle: Articles 14, 19, and 21

The Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) established that Articles 14, 19, and 21 do not operate in silos but form an interconnected trinity. Any law infringing personal liberty under Article 21 must also be non-arbitrary (Article 14) and reasonable (Article 19).

3. Judicial Evolution & Expanding Horizons

• Right to Privacy: Unanimously recognized as an intrinsic part of Article 21 in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017).
• Environmental Jurisprudence: Expanding Article 21 to encompass clean air and water (M.C. Mehta series).
• Decriminalization of Adultery & Section 377: Reaffirming autonomy and equality (Navtej Singh Johar and Joseph Shine).

4. Critical Challenges & Way Forward

1. Preventive Detention Safeguards: Stringent judicial scrutiny to prevent misuse of statutory detention powers.
2. Horizontal Application of Rights: Enforcing non-discrimination in private spaces (Kaushal Kishore v. State of UP).
3. Speedy Justice & Undertrials: Implementing Law Commission 268th report recommendations on bail reforms.

1. Fundamental Postulates & Non-Justiciability

Borrowed from the Irish Constitution (which borrowed from Spain), DPSP represents the instrument of instructions for a welfare state under Part IV...

2. DPSP vs. Fundamental Rights Conflict

• Champakam Dorairajan (1951): FRs prevail over DPSP.
• Golak Nath (1967): Parliament cannot abridge FRs even for implementing DPSP.
• Kesavananda Bharati (1973): Upholding Article 31C.
• Minerva Mills (1980): Fundamental Rights and DPSP are two wheels of a chariot.

• Key concept: Making Of The Constitution • Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams. • Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

Making Of The Constitution

Date	Events
1922	Mahatma Gandhi demanded that the people of India should have the rights to choose. Gandhiji said "Swaraj will not be a free gift of the British Parliament. It will be a declaration of India’s full self-expression. That it will be expressed through an act of Parliament is true. Swaraj can never be a free gift from one nation to another. It is a treasure to be purchased with a nation’s best blood. It will cease to be a gift when we have paid clearly for it".
1928	Motilal Nehru was appointed as the Chairman in 1928 "to determine the principles of the constitution for India". The Nehru Report was submitted on 10 August 1928. Most of its features were later included in the Constitution of India. Nehru's report laid special emphasis on securing fundamental human rights for the people of India. This was the 1st attempt by Indians to frame a full-fledged Constitution for India.
1934	M N Roy demand for Constituent Assembly for India for the first time.
1935	In the year 1935, the Indian National Congress for the first time officially demanded the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
1939	World War II broke off
1940	The demand for the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY was for the first time and authoritatively conceded by the British Government in the year 1940 through August Offer. This offer was rejected by all the shades of nationalists and the Congress Party started the Individual Civil Disobedience movement to register their protest. The coalition government in England recognized the principle that the Indians should themselves frame a new Constitution.
1942	Sir Stafford Cripps (Cabinet Minister) came to India with a proposal of the framing of the Independent Constitution of India to be adopted after World War II provided that the 2 major political parties INC and the Muslim League could come to an agreement. The Muslim League rejected the same on the demand that India be divided into 2 autonomous states into communal lines with 2 separate CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLYs.
1942	Quit India Movement started in August 1942.
1945	World War II (came to end), and the new labor party government came to the power in England.
1945	Simla Conference was held at the instance of the viceroy, Lord Wavell. SIMLA CONFERENCE: - The Simla Conference of 1945 was arranged by Lord Archibald Wavell and the major political parties in India. - This was convened to agree upon the Wavell plan for the Indian self Government to provide separate representation to Muslims. - The talks failed
1946	Cabinet Mission plan (Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A V Alexander ) was sent on March 24, 1946, to India with a proposal of CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
1946	Constituent Assembly (Formation and first meeting) was constituted in November 1946 with 389 members (296 British India and 93 were from princely states). Out of 296 INC won 208 including all general seats except 9, Muslim League 73, others, and independent members 15. Congress: 208 Muslim League: 73 Unionist: 1 Unionist Muslim: 1 Unionist Scheduled Castes: 1 Krishak Praja: 1 Scheduled Castes Praja: 1 Sikh (non-congress): 1 Communist: 1 Independents: 8 Important Note: - Pandit Nehru was the Chairman. - Except for Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah, all prominent persons were members in CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY. - Princely states initially decided to stay away from the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY. - The first meeting was held on December 9, 1946. The meeting was attended by 211 members only. - Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state Pakistan. - Dr.Sachchidanand Sinha - interim President of CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY. - H C Mukherjee - Vice President of the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY. - BN Rau - Constitutional advisor. - December 13, 1946 - "Objectives Resolution" was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru. The "Objective Resolution" was adopted on January 22, 1947. The preamble was the modified version of the Objectives Resolution.
1947	Lord Mountbatten replaced Lord Wavell as Viceroy of India
June 3, 1947	Lord Mountbatten came out with a plan, a formal shape was given by a statement made by the British Government on June 3, 1947. It is popularly known as the June 3rd plan or Mountbatten Plan
1947	Indian Independence Act was passed in the British parliament. It was introduced on July 4, 1947, and came into force on July 18, 1947. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 provided that from August 15, 1947, would be set up two independent dominions India and Pakistan.
1947	Partition. The members of the Pakistan area in the Constituent Assembly are ceased to be the members.
1947	Independence to Indian and Pakistan. With the Indian Independence Act of 1947, CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY became the sovereign body. (India became sovereign on January 26, 1950)
1948	Draft of Indian Constitution introduced by Dr. B R Ambedkar on November 4, 1948 (1st reading).
1949	Constitution was adopted on November 26th.
1950	Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.

After the partition, the Constituent Assembly re-assembled on October 31, 1947, with 299 members. The CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY became the first parliament of free India.
CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY adopted the:
- National Flag on July 22, 1947
- Constitution on November 26, 1949
- National Anthem on January 24, 1950
- National Song on January 24, 1950

January 24 1950 was the last session of the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY. The Constituent Assembly continued as the provisional Parliament of India from January 26, 1950, to till the completion of the first-ever general elections in India. (1951-52). There were 22 committees constituted in the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY: 10 committees were for procedural affairs and the rest 12 Committees were on Sustentative (Sustentative or Considerable) Affairs.

Important:

The First President of India	Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected on January 24, 1950.
The First speaker	G V Mavalankar
Steering Committee chairman	KM Munshi
The Rules of procedure committee chairman	Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Drafting committee chairman	Dr. B R Ambedkar.
Union powers Committee chairman	Jawaharlal Nehru.
Committee on Union Constitution Chairman	Jawaharlal Nehru.
Provincial Constitution Committee chairman	Sardar Patel.
Committee of Fundamental Rights and Minorities head	Sardar Vallabhai Patel.

- The drafting committee was set up on August 29, 1947 (Very Important), and the first constitutional draft was prepared by BN Rau (Advisor to the Constituent Assembly).
- The final draft was introduced in the CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY by Dr B R Ambedkar on November 4, 1948 (1st reading).
- The 3rd reading was completed on November 26, 1949, and then it was adopted as "draft Constitution".
- The Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. Since then January 26 is celebrated every year as Republic day. The President and the members of the Constituent Assembly signed it.
- It appointed Lord Louis Mountbatten as the first Governor-General and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India.
- The original Constitution contained 8 schedules and 395 Articles. The preamble was enacted after the enactment of the Constitution. (Remember “Preamble” was the last to be adopted and enacted).
- In all, it took 2 years 11 months and 18 days for the Constitution to get completed.
- The Provisional Parliament ceased to exist on April 17, 1952. The first elected Parliament (2 houses) came into being in May 1952.
- The provisions related to Citizenship, elections, provincial Parliament, temporary and transitional provisions were given immediate effect. (November 26, 1949).
- The rest of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950.
Dr. BR Ambedkar is regarded as the Father of the Constitution of India. He was the first Law Minister of the Nation from August 15, 1947, to January 26, 1950.

• Key concept: Salient Features of the Constitution
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

Salient Features of the Constitution
Indian Constitution is a written Constitution. A written Constitution is a one which has been framed in given time-frame and then adopted on a fixed date. The British Constitution is an example of an unwritten constitution. The Indian Constitution was framed over a period of 2 years, 11 months and 18 days. It was adopted on 26th November 1949, and it came in force on 26th January 1950.
The lengthiest Constitution in the world

• The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.
• A single Constitution for the entire country except for Jammu and Kashmir.

Parliamentary form of Government
The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. This forms talks about the presence of nominal (Dejure) and real (defacto) executives. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The president is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister (Chief Minister at the state level).
Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility
It has been the nature of the amending process itself in federations which had led political scientists to classify federal Constitution as rigid. It is rigid which means there is a special procedure for amending the Constitution. And its flexible which means that with an ordinary procedure some areas in the constitution can be amended.
Fundamental Rights
These rights are prohibitions against the State. The State cannot make a law which takes away or abridges any of the rights of the citizens guaranteed in part III of Constitution. Originally 7 fundamental rights were mentioned in the constitution, but at present there are only 6, after the deletion of 'Right To Property' by the 44th amendment.
Directive Principles of State policy (DPSP)
The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV of the Constitution, it set out the aims and objectives to be taken up by the States in the governance of the country. These are non-justiciable. It means this cannot be challenged in the court of law. In the Minerva Mills case of 1980 the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP).
Fundamental Duties
This was added by the 42nd amendment in the year 1976. It was recommended by Swaran Singh Committee. Part IV A was added for accommodating Fundamental Duties. Initially on 10 Fundamental Duties were added. 11th Fundamental Duty was added in the year 2002 through the 86th Constitutional amendment.
A Secular State
The constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic. A Secular State has no religion. Thus India does not have any official religion. It treats all religions equally. Articles 25 to 28 of the Indian Constitution give concrete shape to this concept of secularism. It guarantees to every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Adult Suffrage

• All person above the age of 18 years can vote Under the Indian Constitution.
• Initially, the voting age was 21 years. But through the 61st amendment voting age has been reduced from 21 to 18 in the year 1989.

Emergency Provisions:

• Provided for 3 types of emergencies. National Emergency, State Emergency or President’s Rule & Financial Emergency
• During National emergency India from the state of Federation, it becomes Unitary.

3 Tier Government

• Through 73rd and 74th amendments, 3 tier structures were created.
• Panchayati Raj and Municipalities are made the Constitutional bodies.

A federation with strong centralising tendency
The most remarkable feature of the Indian Constitution is that being a federal Constitution it acquires a unitary character during the time of emergency. During the proclamation of emergency, the normal distribution of powers between Centre and State undergoes a vital change. The union parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject mentioned in the state list. The financial arrangements between the Centre and State can also be altered by the Union Government.
An Independent Judiciary
An independent and impartial judiciary with the power of judicial review has been established under the Constitution of India. It is a custodian right of citizens. Besides, in a federal Constitution, it plays another significant role in determining the limits of power of the Centre and States.
Single Citizenship
The American constitution provides for dual citizenship, i.e., the citizen of America and a state citizenship. But in India, there is only one citizenship, i.e., Citizen of India. No state citizenship like a citizen of Assam, Citizen of Delhi. Every Indian is Citizen of India and enjoys the same rights of citizenship no matter in what state he resides.
Bicameral Legislature
It provides a bicameral legislature at Union consisting of the Lok Sabha And Rajya Sabha. Thr former contains Representatives Of The People, while the latter contains Council Of States.
Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Srilanka and other country have their constitution based on the Indian Constitution.

• Key concept: The President of India • Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams. • Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

The President of India is the constitutional head of state of the Republic of India. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.

Although Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the President can exercise his or her powers directly or by subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all of the executive authority vested in the President are, in practice, exercised by the Council of Ministers (CoM).

Part V of the Constitution (The Union) under Chapter I (The Executive) lists out the qualification, election and impeachment of the President of India.

List of Presidents of India

The President of India: Election, Powers & Duties

Article 52: There shall be a President of India. The president is the first citizen of India.

Article 53: This mentions the executive powers of the Union.

The executive power shall be exercised by the President either directly or through officers subordinate to him

Election Of The President

Article 54: The President is elected by an electoral college.

The President is elected by the elected members of:

• Lok sabha
• Rajya Sabha
• State Assemblies
• State Assemblies of Delhi and Pondicherry. (Since 1992 through the 70th amendment).

Article 55: This Article mentions about the manner of the election of the President.

• The President is elected indirectly.
• The election shall be by a secret ballot.
• The election shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

Note: The nominated members and all the members of Legislative Councils (In case of Bicameral Legislatures) are not permitted to vote in the election of the President of India.

Qualification, Oath, Term and Conditions for President

Article 56: This article mentions about the term of the President.

• The term of office is 5 years from the date on which the President enters upon his office.
• The President can resign to his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President of India.
• the President may be removed from office for violation of the Constitution, by impeachment in the manner provided in article 61.
• President is also eligible for re-election to that office.
• He may be elected for any number of terms. In USA, a person cannot be elected as President more than twice.

Article 57: Eligibility for re-election of President

A person is eligible for re-election to the office of the President any number of terms.

Qualifications for Election as President

Article 58: This articles elaborate the qualifications for election as President

Qualification of a person to contest for the President:

• Citizen of India
• Should have completed 35 years of age
• Should not hold any office of profit
• Should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

Explanation: For the purposes of this article, a person shall not be deemed to hold any office of profit by reason only that he is the President or Vice-President of the Union or the Governor of any State or is a Minister either for the Union or for any State.

Article 71: The disputes related to the election of the President of India are challenged only in Supreme Court, and the decision of the Supreme Court is final. This article also includes the disputes related to the election to the office of the Vice-President also.

• Security Deposit: 15000/- (Fifteen thousand Rupees). Security deposit will not be refunded if the candidate fails to get the 1/6th of the votes polled.
• Nomination: A candidate for election to the office of the President must be subscribed by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders.

Article 59: Conditions of President's office

• The President shall not be a member of any house of Union or the state legislature.
• He shall not hold any office of Profit
• The President shall be entitled to the free use of his official residence and such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by the Parliament by law.
• The president is entitled to Free travel, Secretarial staff and Free Telephone, water, electricity, rent free furnished accommodation. The official residence of the President is called "Rashtrapati Bhavan". Free residence, Medicare, pension to the President’s spouse if the President dies in office or after retirement.

Oath

Article 60: Oath or affirmation by the President

• OATH of Office:Is administered by the Chief justice of India and in his absence, the senior most judge of Supreme Court. The Acting President should also take similar type of oath.
• The President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law.
• Salary and other allowances are determined by the Parliament from time to time. The salary and other allowances of the President cannot be diminished during the term of office.

Current Salary of President of India: 1,50,000/- (One Lakh and Fifty Thousands) per month.
Pension of President of India: 9,00,000/- (Nine Lakhs) per annum.

The President submits the resignation to the Vice President. The Vice President submits the resignation to the President.

Impeachment and Vacancy

Article 61: The procedure for impeachment of the President.

• The President of India can be removed from by a process of impeachment on the grounds of "Violation of the Constitution".
• Charges can be initiated by any house of the Parliament.
• All the members of Loksabha and Rajya Sabha (Elected and nominated) take part in the impeachment process of the President. Assembly members are not permitted to take part in the impeachment process of the President of India.
• The charges should be signed by 1/4th of the members of the house.
• 14 days notice is given to the President.
• After it is passed by the 2/3rd majority of the total membership of the house it is sent to the other house. If the other house also passes the same with 2/3rd majority of the total then the President stands impeached.

Article 62: Time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of President and the term of office or person elected to fill casual vacancy

The Vacancy can occur due to:

• Resignation
• Death
• Impeachment
• Otherwise. (If the election of the President is declared void by the Supreme Court).

The election for President should be held within 6 months of vacancy. The newly elected President remains in office for a full term of five years.

In the case of a vacancy in the office of the President, the Vice-President acts as the President. In the case of a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, the Chief Justice of India acts as the President.

If the office of CJI is also vacant, the seniormost judge of the SC available acts as the President.

Powers and Functions of the President

Legislative Powers

The President is a part of Parliament. The President can summon the Parliament, Prorogue the Parliament and Dissolves Loksabha. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house it cannot be dissolved.
The President can also summon the Joint session of the Parliament (Article 108). The Speaker presides over the Joint session of the Parliament.

So far Joint Session was conducted for 3 times

• Dowry Prohibition Bill in 1960: As the Lok Sabha did not agree to the amendments made by the Rajya Sabha , a joint session was held on May 6, 1961.
• Banking Service Commission (Repeal) bill 1977: The Rajya Sabha rejected the bill after it is passed in the Lok Sabha. A joint Sitting was held on May 16, 1978.
• Prevention of Terrorism Bill 2002: The bill was passed by the Lok Sabha but, rejected by the Upper House. A joint sitting was held on March 26, 2002.

ARTICLE 86: Address the Parliament at the commencement of the 1^st session every year (after January 1^st, generally this is the budget session) and also at the commencement of the 1^st session after general election (The Lok Sabha Election)

Nominates 12 members to Rajya sabha from the persons with special knowledge or practical experience in Science, Arts, Literature and Social Service.

Nominates 2 members to Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community. (If in the opinion of the President that the Community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha)

Decides the question of disqualification of the members of the parliament in consultation with the Election Commission.

The Budget is introduced in Lok Sabha with the prior permission of the President. A bill which is meant for the creation of a new state or altering the boundaries of the existing states introduced in the parliament with the Prior permission.

President has the right to return the bill for reconsideration. But the second time he must sign the bill. (Applicable for ordinary bills only). A bill becomes an Act after the assent of the president. President cannot return Money bills and constitution amendment bills).

Promulgates ordinances when the Parliament is not in the session. (Article 123). The ordinance must be passed by the Parliament within 6 weeks from its reassembly. The President lays the reports of CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission etc before the Parliament.

Reports laid before Parliament by the President

• Auditor General Report relating to accounts of govt. of India
• Recommendation made by Finance Commission
• Report of UPSC, explaining the reasons where any advice of the commission has not been accepted.
• Report of National Commission for SCs & STs
• Report of special officers for linguistic minorities

Executive or Appointment powers

All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken on the name of the President of India.

• The President appoints
  • the Prime Minister. (Article 75 (1)).
  • Attorney-General of India.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General.
  • The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.
  • The Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
  • The Chairman and Members of the Joint Public Service Commission (JPSC).
  • The Chairman and Members of Finance Commission.
  • The Governors of states
  • Appoints administrators to Union Territories.
  • Appoints Commissions to investigate into conditions of SCs, STs and Other Backward classes.
  • Appoints the inter-state council to promote centre-state cooperation.
• All other ministers are also appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. (Article 75 (1)).
•  The President allocated the business among the ministers.

Judicial powers

The President of India appoints the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.  The President can seek advice from the Supreme Court (as per Article 143).  The advice rendered by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President.

Financial powers

• The money bills are introduced in the Lok Sabha with the prior permission of the President. (All Money bills are introduced in Lok Sabha)
• The annual Financial Statement (Budget) is laid before the Lok Sabha with the prior permission of the President.
• President can make advances out of the Contingency Fund of India to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
• The President constitutes the Finance Commission (Article 280) every 5 years to recommend the distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.

Diplomatic powers

International treaties are concluded by the President. (Subject to the approval of the Parliament). The President sends and receives diplomats like ambassadors, high Commissioners and so on. President represents India in international forums and affairs

Military powers

President is the Supreme commander of the armed forces. And is responsible for appointments of the Army Chief, the Navy Admiral and the Air Marshall. President can declare war and peace. (Subject to the approval of Parliament).

Pardoning Powers (Article 72)

President may grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence.

• Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law
• Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court)
• The sentence is a sentence of death

The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary. It is executive power. President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal.

The President has 5 types of pardoning powers.

• Pardon: This removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
• Commutation: This is the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form
• Remission: Reducing the period of the sentence without changing its character. From Rigorous imprisonment (5 years) to Rigorous imprisonment (2 years).
• Respite: Awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded because of some special facts. Ex: Pregnant women, disabled persons etc
• Reprieve: This is the stay of execution of a sentence for a temporary period. Purpose of reprieve is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.

The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet.

President is not bound to give reasons for his order. This power of President is not subject to judicial review.

President can afford relief not only from a sentence that he regards as unduly harsh but also from an evident mistake.

Supreme Court cannot give guideline for exercising of power by the President. Judicial review can be done where the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.

Petitioner cannot file another petition, if one petition for mercy has been rejected by the President.

Veto Powers

Through this authority of the President to withhold assent to the bills passed by the Parliament. This is applicable to only ordinary bills. Money Bills and constitutional bills needs to be signed.

President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill

Classifications of Veto Powers:

1. Absolute Veto: 

The power of the President to withhold the assent to a bill passed by the Parliament.

This veto is exercised in the following two cases:

• With respect to private members’ bills
• With respect to the govt. bills when the cabinet resigns and the new cabinet advises the President not to give his assent to such bills.

Absolute veto power used

• President Dr. Rajendra Prasad – 1954
• President R Venkataraman – 1991

2. Suspensive Veto: 

The President returns the bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament. If the bill is again passed by the Parliament with or without amendments, it is obligatory for the President to give assent to the bill.

So the presidential veto is overridden by a re-passage of the bill by the same ordinary majority. In USA it need a higher majority.

President does not possess this veto in the case of money bills. The President can either give his assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a money bill but cannot return it for the reconsideration of the Parliament.

Normally, the President gives his assent to money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament with his previous permission.

3. Pocket Veto: 

The President neither rejects nor returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period of time. 

Constitution does not prescribe any time-limit to President to take decision with respect to a bill.

In USA, President has to return the bill for reconsideration within 10 days. So, the pocket of the Indian President is bigger than that of the American President.

In 1986, President Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill.

Presidential Veto over State Legislation

When a bill is passed by the state legislature and sent to the Governor for his consent. Under Article 200 of the constitution the Governor

• May give assent to the bill, or
• Withhold the assent to the bill, or
• May return the bill for the reconsideration by the state legislature, or
• May reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.

• Governor can reserved a state legislature bill for consideration of the President.
• The President can
  • Give his assent to the bill, or
  • Withhold his assent to the bill, or
  • Direct the governor to return the bill for reconsideration of the state legislature.
• It is not obligatory for the President to give his assent even if the bill is again passed by the state legislature.
• If the case of a money bill, President can’t return the bill.

Ordinance Making Power

Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate (Proclaim, announce) ordinances. This is considered the most important power of the President.

• The ordinance can be proclaimed by the President only during recess (when the Parliament is not in session).
• The ordinance can also be issued when only one house is in session.
• The decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President prorogued one house or both the houses of the Parliament deliberately with a view to issuing an ordinance on a controversial subject.
• An ordinance issued by the President must be laid before both the houses of Parliament when it reassembles.
• From the date of reassembly, the ordinance is valid for a period of six weeks.
• The President can withdraw an ordinance at any time.
• The ordinance cannot be issued to amend the constitution.

In Cooper case, (1970), the Supreme Court held that the President’s satisfaction can be questioned in a court on the ground of malafide.

D C Wadhwa case (1987) Supreme Court held that the exceptional power of law-making through ordinance cannot be used as a substitute for the legislative power of the state legislature.

Emergency powers

The Constitution of India granted 3 types of emergency powers to the President of India.

• National Emergency (Article 352)
• State Emergency or President’s Rule (Article 356)
• Financial Emergency (Article 360)

FAQs

• Key concept: The Union & Its Territory (Article 1- 4) • Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams. • Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below. The Part-I of Indian Constitution details the Union & Its Territory. The concerned articles are 1 to 4

Part I: The Union & Its Territory (Article 1- 4)

ARTICLE 1:

1. India, that is Bharat, shall be the Union of States.
2. The States and UTs thereof shall be as specified in the first schedule
3. • Territories of states
   • UTs as specified in the first schedule
   • Such other territories as may be acquired

Article 1 states India or Bharat as 'Union of states' rather than 'Federation of States' The territory of India consists of: - The territories of the states - The Union Territories - Any territories that may be acquired by India As on today, there are 29 states and 7 Union territories in the country. The 7 Union territories are:

• Delhi
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• Lakshadweep
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli
• Daman and Diu
• Pondicherry
• Chandigarh

"Union of India" includes only states whereas "Territory of India" covers states and union territories. States share power with the Central government and Union Territories are administered by Central Government. The names of the states and the Union territories and the territories covered by each of them have been described in the first schedule of the Constitution. India can acquire foreign territory through modes recognised by International law: cession, occupation, conquest or subjugation. The other countries possessions can be added to India through Constitutional amendments.

ARTICLE 2: Parliament may by law admit new states into the union of India or establish new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.

The Article 2 of the Indian Constitution provides two powers to the Parliament. - The power to admit the new states into the Union of India And - The power to establish new states. - In the year 1974, the Sikkim Assembly passed the Government of Sikkim Act, 1974. - This act empowered the Government of Sikkim to seek participation and representation of the people of Sikkim in the Indian political institutions for the speedy development of Sikkim. - The resolution also meant for the representation of the people of Sikkim in the Indian Parliamentary system. - In the year 1974, the 35th Constitution amendment act was passed by the Parliament to give effect to the resolution. - The main provisions of the 35th amendment act are Sikkim will be an ‘associate state’ of India. - There was a criticism regarding the 35th amendment of the Constitution since the original Constitution did not mention about the ‘associated state’. - The Parliament passed the 36th amendment act. - Sikkim has been admitted into the Union of India as a state. - The 36th amendment act came into effect from April 26, 1975. - Article 371F inserted to make some special provisions relating to the admission of Sikkim.

ARTICLE 3: The parliament may by law is empowered to

• (a) Form a new state By separation of territory from ant state OR by uniting 2 or more states or parts of states OR By uniting any territory to a part of any state.
• (b) Increase the area of any state
• (c) Diminish the area of any state
• (d) Alter the boundaries of any state
• (e) Alter the name of any state

The Constitution empowered the Parliament to reorganise the boundaries of the states by a simple majority. It means the Constitution authorises the Parliament to make new states or alter the areas of existing states. Article 3 lays down two conditions in the formation of new states. 1) The bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. 2) The President shall before giving recommendation refer the bill to the legislature of the state which is going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill. - The state legislature must express its view in the time specified by the President. - The President is not bound by the view of the state legislature and may accept or reject them. - It is not necessary to make afresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in the Parliament. - In the case of Union territory, no reference need be made to the concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit.

ARTICLE 4: (1) Any law referred to Article 2 or 3 shall contain such provisions for the amendment of the first schedule and fourth schedule as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemented, incidental and consequential provisions. (2) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purpose of Article 368.

It means these can be passed without resorting to any special procedure. This can be done by a simple majority of the parliament like any other piece of ordinary legislation. THE NAMES OF THE STATES CAN BE CHANGED THROUGH THE PROVISION OF ARTICLE 3 Following is the list of name changes that have happened over time:

• In the year 1950 the states United Provinces was renamed Uttar Pradesh.
• In the year 1969, Madras was renamed “Tamil Nadu”. This was done through Madras State (Alternation of the name) Act, 1968 with effect from January 14, 1969.
• In the year 1973, Mysore was renamed ‘Karnataka’. This was done through Mysore State (Alternation name) Act, 1973.
• In the year 1973 Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands renamed ‘Lakshadweep’.
• In the year 1992, the Union territory of Delhi was re-designated as the ‘National Capital Territory of Delhi’. This was done through 69th amendment act, 1991 with effect from February 1, 1992.
• In 2006 Uttaranchal was renamed as Uttarakhand
• In 2006 Pondicherry was renamed as Puducherry.
• In 2011 Orissa was renamed as Odisha.

Other Important Points: The name of the country was discussed in the Constituent Assembly. While “Bharat” was the ancient name and India was the modern name. As a member of United Nations also the name of the country was India and all the international agreements were entered in that name. As a compromise ‘India’ that is ‘Bharat’ was accepted.

• No state in India could secede from the Union. The Parliament's power to diminish the area of any state does not cover cession of Indian Territory to a foreign state.
• In the Berubari (West Bengal) case of 1960 on a presidential reference, the Supreme Court expressed the opinion that no cession of territory could be made without a constitutional amendment under Article 368. To give effect to an agreement with Pakistan for transfer of part of the Berubari territory, the 9th constitutional amendment took place in the year 1960.
• In the year 1969, the Supreme Court ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by an executive action since it does not involve cession of Indian Territory to a foreign country.
• The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2015 was enacted for acquiring of certain territories by India and transferring some other territories to Bangladesh. India transferred 3 enclaves whereas Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves to India.

India is an indestructible Union of destructible states. (The Union Government can destroy the states. In the USA, the Federal government cannot create states or modify existing states without their consent. ). The country is described as the ‘Union’ although the Constitution is federal in structure. At the time of independence, India comprised two categories of political units, namely the British provinces and princely states.The Indian independence Act, 1947 gave 3 options to the princely states, either to join India or Pakistan or remain independent.

• Out of 552 princely states, 549 integrated with India by the efforts of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• The Hyderabad state was integrated through Police action.
• Junagarh was integrated through the referendum.
• Kashmir was integrated through Instrument of Accession.

The Indian Constitution of 1950 contained 29 states. The 29 states were classified into 4 parts.

• Part A contained 9 erstwhile governor’s provinces of British India.
• Part B contained 9 erstwhile princely states with legislatures.
• Part C contained 10 states. (Erstwhile Chief Commissioner’s provinces of British India and some of the erstwhile princely states). These states were centrally administered.
• In Part D the Andaman and Nicobar Islands were kept as the solitary (lonely).

  The Fazal Ali commission suggested getting away from the system of the 4-part state. By the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of same year, Part A and Part B were merged, and Part C was abolished completely. As a result, 14 states and 6 union territories were created on 1st November 1956. States & Union Territories created after 1956

• Maharashtra & Gujarat were carved out of Bombay state based on language. Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujarati speaking people.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli: Through 10th amendment of the Constitution in the year 1962 the Portuguese enclaves (possessions) of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was constituted into a Union territory.
• Similarly Goa, Daman and Diu was added as a Union territory by the 12th Constitutional amendment in the year 1962.
• The Pondicherry together with Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam were ceded to India by the French government in the year 1954.In the year 1962 through the 14th Constitutional amendment Pondicherry together with Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam, the French possessions was added as a Union territory.
• Nagaland was carved out of Assam by taking Naga Hills & Tuensang area. It was the 16th State formed in 1963.
• Haryana, Chandigarh and Himachal Pradesh: Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana and the Union Territory Chandigarh in 1966. Haryana was the 17th state. in 1971, Himachal Pradesh was elevated as the 18th state of India.
• Manipur, Tripura, and Meghalaya: In 1972, the two union territories Manipur and Tripura were elevated to state. The sub-state Meghalaya was also made into a state. This gave birth to 2 new union territories - Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (originally known as North East Frontier Agency - NEFA) which were from territories of Assam. India now had 21 states.
• Sikkim: Until 1947, Sikkim was a princely state ruled by Chogyal. Sikkim was made a full-fledged state by the 36th constitutional amendment on 1975. This amendment changed First and Fourth Schedules of the Constitution and add new Article 371-F.
• Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa were created in 1987. Goa was created by separating itself from Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu.
• Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created in 2000. Chhattisgarh was carved from Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand from Uttar Pradesh, and Jharkhand from Bihar.
• Telangana was created in 2014 after a long struggle.

In January 2012, the DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) demanded that the taluks of Devikulam and Peermedu, now in Kerala and forming parts of the catchment of Periyar river be merged with Tamil Nadu. This demand was first made by DMK way back in 1956 and 1957. The decision for the creation of a new state “Telangana’ has been announced by the Congress Working Committee on July 30, 2013. On December 4, 2013, the GoM (Group of Ministers) submitted its final recommendations to the Cabinet. At the same time, the dormant demands from various states have been surfaced. Followings are the demands for separate states:

• Paschimanchal, Harit Pradesh, Bundelkhand, Awadh Pradesh and Purvanchal in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• Vidarbha in Maharashtra
• Gorkhaland in West Bengal
• Bodoland and Karbi Anglong in Assam

• Key concept: Indian Constitution: Citizenship • Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams. • Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

Citizenship is mentioned in Part II of the Indian Constitution. Citizenship and its benefits are covered under Articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution. The Citizenship provisions are covered under articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution. The concept of Citizenship came into existence since the adoption of the Constitution on November 26, 1949. The Constitution of India laid down the law in regard to who would be the citizens of India at the time of commencement of the Constitution. The Constitution of India has not provided for the mode of acquisition and termination of citizenship. As per Article 11 of the Indian Constitution, the parliament could regulate the right of citizenship by law. The Parliament passed the Citizenship Act, 1955 for acquisition and termination of Citizenship.

Part II: Citizenship (Article 5 – 11)

Article	Importance
5	Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution
6	Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan
7	Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan.
8	Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India
9	Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens.
10	Continuance of the rights of citizenship.
11	Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.

According to Indian Constitution, Indian can have 2 kind of people: Citizen and Aliens. Aliens are further divided Friendly and Enemy aliens. The Citizens enjoy all civil and political rights granted by the Constitution.

Constitutional Provisions

The Citizenship provides:

• Full political membership in the state
• permanent allegiance to the state
• Official recognition by the state of his integration into the political system.

The citizen pledges loyalty to the state and The state protects the citizens.
The Citizenship to an individual also brings:

• Rights
• Duties
• Privileges
• Obligations

The Public (government) offices are open only to the citizens.
Only the citizens of India are eligible for the offices of:

• The President (Article 58(1)(a))
• The Vice President (Article 66(3)(a))
• The Judge of the Supreme Court (Article 124(3))
• The Judge of a High Court (Article 217(2))
• The Attorney-General (Article 76(2))
• The Governor of a State (Article 157)
• The Advocate - General (Article 165)
• The right of suffrage (vote) for the election to the House of the people (Lok sabha) and the Legislative assembly of every state - (Article 326)
• Right to become a member of Parliament (Article 84)
• Right to become a member of a state legislature (Article 191(d))
• The citizens are eligible for recruitment to all public services.
• Only the citizens have the right to vote

Who is Citizen of India?

On the basis of Article 11 of the Indian citizenship Act, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act in 1955. The Citizenship Act of 1955 has been amended in 1957, 1960, 1985, 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005 and 2015.
Article 5: This provides that a person becomes entitled to the citizenship of India if, at the commencement of the Constitution he has his domicile in the territory of India, or he or either of his parents were born in India or He has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years immediately before the commencement of the Constitution.
According to the Articles 5 to 8 of the Indian Constitution, the following 4 categories of people became citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the Indian Constitution.

• Persons domiciled in India
• Persons migrated from Pakistan
• Persons migrated to Pakistan but later returned to India
• Persons of Indian origin residing outside India

Other Constitutional provisions with respect to the citizenship:

• Article 9 does not allow dual citizenship. If a person voluntarily accepts citizenship of another country, they will not be recognised as a citizen of India.
• Article 10 empowers the Parliament to make laws related to citizenship.
• Article 11 empowers the Parliament to make laws related to acquisition and termination of citizenship.

Domicile:
- The term Domicile is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
- Domicile is a person's residence where he intends to live on a permanent basis. Permanent residence And Intention to reside indefinitely Constitutes the Domicile.
Article 6:
This provides for citizenship rights of migrants from Pakistan before the commencement of the Constitution.
This provides 2 types of distinctions. Note: Permit system for migration was introduced on July 19, 1948.
- The people migrating to India before July 19, 1948
- The people migrating to India after July 19, 1948
A person migrated before July 19, 1948, shall be deemed to be a citizen of India on the commencement of the Constitution if.

• The person Or His parents (born in India as defined by the GOI Act, 1935)
• Any of grandparents (born in India as defined by the GOI Act, 1935) And Has been ordinarily residing in India since the date of the migration.

In case of migration after July 19, 1948

• He should have been registered as a citizen of India by an officer appointed for the purpose by the government of India.
  And Has been residing in India for at least 6 months immediately preceding the date of application.

Article 7:
A person who migrated to Pakistan from India after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India for resettlement could become a citizen of India.

• For this the person he had to be the resident of India for 6 months preceding the date of his application for registration.
• Note: the meaning of Migration mentioned in Article 7 is the migration before the commencement of the Constitution.
• The person migrating from Pakistan to India, after January 26, 1950 are governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955.

Article 8:
This Article provides that A person Or Any of his parents Or any of his grandparents born in India as defined by the Government of India Act, 1935 but ordinarily residing outside India shall become a citizen of India if registered as a citizen of India by the diplomatic representative of India in that country. This is with respect to before or after the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Article 9:
This provides that if a person voluntarily acquired the citizenship of another country, he shall forfeit the right of the citizenship of India.
- The above clause is applicable to cases arising before the commencement of the Indian Constitution.
- Such type of cases arising after the commencement of the Constitution shall be dealt by the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Note: whether a person has lost the citizenship of India after acquiring the Citizenship of the other country is to be decided by the government of India.
Article 10:
This provides that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the provisions in the articles 5 to 10 shall continue to be a citizen of India. This is subject to the provisions of any law made by the parliament.
Article 11:
This article provides for the Parliament to enact legislations pertaining to the acquisition and termination of the citizenship of India.
The Parliament passes Citizenship Act in 1955 that provided methods for the acquisition and termination of the citizenship.
The citizenship can be acquired by 5 ways.

• By Birth
• By Descent
• By Registration
• By Naturalization
• By incorporating a territory

The citizenship can be terminated in 3 methods.

• Renunciation
• Termination
• Deprivation

Acquiring The Citizenship Of India

Citizenship by birth

• Any person born in India on or after 26 January 1950, but prior to the commencement of the 1986 Act on 1 July 1987, is a citizen of India by birth.
• A person born in India on or after 1 July 1987 is a citizen of India if either parent was a citizen of India at the time of the birth.
• Those born in India on or after 3 December 2004 are considered citizens of India only if both of their parents are citizens of India or if one parent is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.

Note: The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire the Indian citizenship by birth.
Citizenship By Descent:

• A person born outside India on 26th January 1950 and 10th December 1992 is Indian citizen if his father was an India citizen at the time of birth. (Not mother)
• A person born outside India on 10th December 1992 is a citizen of India if either of his parents is Indian at the time of birth.
• From 3rd December 2004, a person born outside India should register at an Indian consulate within one year of the date of birth.
• Minors who are a citizen of India by Descent shall remain until they renounce their citizen of another country within 6 months of attaining full age.

Citizenship By Registration

• Certain categories of persons can be registered as Indian citizens.
• Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India for 5 years immediately before making an application for registration
• Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in any country or place outside India
• Persons who are married to citizens of India and who are ordinarily resident in India for 5 years immediately before making an application for registration
• Minor children of persons who are citizens of India And Persons who are citizens of commonwealth countries

Note: The period of acquisition of citizenship by registration was increased from 6 months to five years).
Citizenship By Naturalization:
A foreigner can acquire the citizenship of India by naturalisation if:

• He renounces the citizenship of the other country
• He is of good character
• He has an adequate knowledge of a language mentioned in the 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution
• He is not a citizen of a country where Indian citizens cannot become naturalised citizens
• The government can waive all above conditions if a person has rendered distinguished service to the science, art, literature, world peace or human progress.

Citizenship By Incorporation Of Territory:
If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, then the government specifies through a notification that the people of that territory shall be the citizens of India. When Pondicherry became part of India, The GOI issued Pondicherry Citizenship Order in 1962, under the Citizenship Act 1955.

By Citizenship of Persons covered by Assam Accord
Any person of Indian origin who came to Assam before 1st January 1966 from Bangladesh

How is Citizenship lost?

By Renunciation:

• This is a voluntary act by which a person holding the citizenship of India as well as that of another country may give up one of them.
• When a person renounces the citizenship every minor child of his ceases to be an Indian citizen
• But the child within one year after attaining 18 years of age may resume Indian citizenship.

By Termination

• When an Indian citizen acquires the citizenship of other country voluntarily, the Indian citizenship is automatically terminated.

By Deprivation

• This is a compulsory termination of the Indian citizenship by the central government if
• The citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud Or
• The citizen has shown the disloyalty to the constitution of India
• The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war
• The citizen has, within 5 years of registration or naturalisation been imprisoned in any country for 2 years
• The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for 7 years continuously.

NOTE: This is not applicable to students and employees who are serving in the international organizations. If a person registers annually at the Indian consulate his intention to retain the Indian citizenship.

Miscellaneous:
- The Indian Constitution avoided the dual citizenship. The USA constitution allows dual citizenship.
- There is only once citizenship related to the domicile in the territory of whole India and not in a part of the country.
- The Citizenship act of 1955 provided for the Commonwealth Citizenships. But this provision was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003.

The PIO (Person of Indian Origin) card entitles a person to visit India without a visa.

Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card: OCI Card is for foreign nationals who were eligible to become a citizen of India on 26.01.1950 or was a citizen of India on or after that date. Applications from citizens of Bangladesh and Pakistan are not allowed. January 9 was adopted as the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas or Overseas Indian Day based on the recommendations of a High Level Committee constituted in August, 2000.

Overseas Indian Card: A new Bill is pending in Parliament [The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill], which seeks to do away with the existing overseas citizen of India (OCI) card and the person of Indian origin (PIO) card, and replace them with a new overseas Indian card.

OCI is not dual citizenship, as Indian Constitution does not allow dual citizenship (Article 9). There are no voting rights for an OCI card holder.

Citizenship Act 1955 at a Glance

Sections	Subject Matter
1.	Short title
2.	Interpretation
Acquisition of Citizenship
3.	Citizenship by Birth
4.	Citizenship by descent
5.	Citizenship by registration
6.	Citizenship by naturalisation
6A	Special provisions as to Citizenship of persons covered by the Assam Accord
7.	Citizenship by incorporation of territory
Overseas Citizenship
7A.	Registration of Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder
7B	Conferment of rights on Overseas Citizen of India  Cardholder
7C	Renunciation of Overseas Citizen of India Card
7D	Cancellation of registration as Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder
Termination of Citizenship
8	Renunciation of citizenship
9	Termination of citizenship
10	Deprivation of citizenship
Supplemental
11	Commonwealth Citizenship (Repealed)
12	Power to confer rights of Indian Citizen on citizens of certain countries (Repealed)
13	Certificate of Citizenship in case of doubt
14	Disposal of application under section 5, 6, and 7A
14A	Issue of national identity cards
15	Revision
15A	Review
16	Delegation of Powers
17	Offences
18	Power to make rules
19	Repeals (Repealed)

Schedules of the Citizenship Act (1955)

Numbers	Subject Matter
First Schedule	List of countries related to the commonwealth citizenship (Omitted by the 2003 Amendment)
Second Schedule	Oath of Allegiance
Third Schedule	Qualification for Naturalisation
Fourth Schedule	List of countries related to the overseas citizenship (Ommited by the 2005 Amendment)

• Key concept: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) • Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams. • Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is explained in PART IV of Indian Constitution through Articles 36-51. The Directive Principles are the needs of the community. The DPSP was borrowed from Irish Constitution of 1937 (which were copied from Spanish Constitution). In short DPSP are the recommendations to the state in Legislative, Executive and Administrative matters. (State means Legislative and Executive organs of the Central and State governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country). The "Instruments of Instructions" was enumerated in the GOI (Government of India) Act of 1935 and they are called Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution.

• DPSP embody the concept of a welfare state.
• The Directive Principles are the operative part of the Constitution.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for modern democratic state.
• The idea of the principles is that realising the high ideals of Justice, liberty, equality and Fraternity as outlined in the Preamble.
• Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justifiable in nature. (They are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation).

Article 36 It defines the state. It has the same meaning as given in Article 12 of Part III (fundamental rights) of the Indian Constitution. Article 37: The Directive Principles are “fundamentals in the governance of the country”. It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. This article also contains a clause of that mentions the non-justiciability of the Directive Principles. It made it clear that the Judiciary should not compel the state to perform a duty under the directive principles of state policy. Article 38: The state shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of social life. Article 38 is the keystone or the core of the Directive principles. Article 39: The Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens, equal Pay for equal work for both men and women. Article 40: To organise Village Panchayats. Article 41: The right to work, Public Assistance in the event of unemployment. Article 42: The provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity leave. Article 43: The living wage for workers. Article 44: Uniform Civil Code for the whole country. Article 45: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years. 86th Amendment of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and also made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. (This came into effect on April 1, 2010). With this, the Children between the age group of 6 and 14 are entitled to free education. Article 46: Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other backwards classes. Article 47: To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs. It is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living to improve public health. Liquor Ban in India: Gujarat, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Lakshadweep prohibited the manufacture, sale and consumption of alcohol. In Gujarat, the law is in force since May 1, 1960. Gujarat is the only state in India that has the death penalty for those who found guilty of making and selling spurious (fake) liquor which causes death. This was done by amending the Bombay Prohibition (Gujarat Amendment) Bill 2009. The Bombay Prohibition Act 1949 is still in operation in both Maharashtra and Gujarat. The Bangaram Island is the only place in Lakshadweep where the consumption is permitted. Liquor Ban in Haryana: The impact of Prohibition in Haryana: After the 1996 assembly elections the HVP (Haryana Vikas Party) imposed a ban on liquor by the CM Bansilal and it had a very bad impact in the 1998 Lok Sabha elections where it won only 1 Lok Sabha seat from the state (Out of 10). In the year 1998, the government lifted the ban. Article 48: Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry and prohibition of cow slaughter. Article 49: Protection of monuments, places and objects of National importance. Article 50: Separation of Judiciary from Executive. Article 51: To promote international peace and security, just and honourable between nations, respect for international law. Important Points:

• B N Rau (Constitutional advisor) recommended that the rights to be divided into justifiable and non-justifiable. Accordingly, Part III and Part IV came into the picture.
• In Champakam Dorairajan case (1951) the Supreme Court ruled that in the case of any conflict between Fundamental Rights and DPSP, the Fundamental rights would prevail.
• In Golaknath case (1967) the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of DPSP.
• In Keshavananda Bharati case (1973): The Supreme Court declared that there is no essential dichotomy between the Fundamental rights and the Directive principles. They complement and supplement each other.
• 42nd amendment of 1976 accorded supremacy to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental rights.
• In Minerva Mills (1980) case the status of Directive Principles of State Policy was made subordinate to the Fundamental rights.

DR B R AMBEDKAR: The Directive Principles are the novel feature of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental rights contain the Philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. A state just awakened from freedom with its many preoccupations might be crushed under the burden unless it was free to decide the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them. Granville Austin: He described the DPSP as "Conscience of the Constitution" JAWAHARLAL NEHU'S STATEMENT IN 1951: The DPSP represent a dynamic move towards a certain objective. The Fundamental rights represent something static, to preserve certain rights which exist. Both are right. But, somehow and sometime it might so happen that dynamic movement and that static standstill do not quite fit into each other. About Uniform Civil Code: - Dr B R Ambedkar was strongly in favour of Uniform Civil Code. - In S R Bommai vs Union of India case in 1994 the Supreme Court urged the government to enact a Uniform Civil Code to promote National Integration. - The Supreme Court (1994) stated that the Article 44 had remained a dead letter. - The Preamble, Fundamental Rights and the DPSP are the integral parts of the Indian Constitution. All the three are meant for building an egalitarian (equal) society and in the concept of socio-economic justice. - If The Fundamental Rights represent the don’ts, the DPSP represents the Do’s of the executive and legislature then there is conflict. JAWAHARLAL NEHU'S STATEMENT IN PARLIAMENT IN 1955: The responsibility for economic and social welfare policies of the nation should lie with the Parliament and not with the Courts. In the case of contradiction, it was for Parliament to remove the contradiction and make Fundamental rights subserve the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). Distinction between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikant

Others Directive Principles

There are few other Directive Principles apart from those in Part IV

1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services (Article 335, Path XVI)
2. Instruction in Mother Tongue (Article 350-A, Path XVII)
3. Development of the Hindi Language (Article 351, Path XVII)

Articles related to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)

• Key concept: Indian Constitutional Development (Question & Answers)
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

1. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by (Asstt Grade 1992)
(a) Stafford Cripps
(b) A.V. Alexander
(c) Lord Pethick Lawrence
(d) Hugh Gaitskell
Ans: (c)
2. The Constitution of India was adopted by the: (Teachers' Exam 1994)
(a) Governor General
(b) British Parliament
(c) Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament of India
Ans: (c)
3. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on
(a) 6th December, 1946
(b) 9th December, 1946
(c) 20th February, 1947
(d) 3rd June, 1947
Ans: (b)
4. When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31st October, 1947, its reduced membership was:
(a) 299
(b) 311
(c) 319
(d) 331
Ans: (a)
5. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India? (CDS 1995)
(a) Dr. B.N. Rao
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) M.C. Setalvad
Ans: (a)
6. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up:
(a) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(b) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
(c) through a resolution of the provisional government
(d) by the Indian National Congress
Ans: (b)
7. The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent India was set up in :
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Ans: (b)
8. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Sachidananda Sinha
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) P. Upendra
Ans: (a)
9. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution? [CDS 1992]
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Ans: (d)
10. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
(a) about 6 months in 1949
(b) exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
(c) about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
(d) about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
Ans: (d)
11. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans: (b)
12. The demand for the Constituent Assembly was put forward by the Indian National Congress in 1936 at its session held at :
(a) Kanpur
(b) Bombay
(c) Lucknow
(d) Lahore
Ans: (c)
13. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the Constitution:
(a) by a majority vote
(b) by a two-thirds majority
(c) by consensus
(d) unanimously
Ans: (c)
14. The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by the
(a) U.S. Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity
Ans: (c)
15. Match the following: Committees of Constituent Assembly Chairmen
A. Drafting Committee 1. Vallabhbhai PateI
B. Committee on Fundamental and Minority Rights 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Union Constitution Committee 3. Kanhiyalal Munshi
D. Working Committee 4. B.R. Ambedkar
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct? (IAS 2004)
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
Ans: (a)
17. Match the following:
A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of National Song by the Constituent Assembly
B. January 24, 1950 2. Adoption of National Emblem by the Government
C. January 26, 1950 3. Adoption of National Calendar by the Government
D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (a)
18. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
I. India's National Song-Vande Mataram
II. India s National Flower-Rose
III. India's National Animal-Tiger
IV. India's National Bird-Eagle
(a) I and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III
Ans: (d)
19. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constitutent Assembly of India in:
(a) July, 1948
(b) July, 1950
(c) July, 1947
(d) August, 1947
Ans: (c)
20. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
21. Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British constitutional experiments in India?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Indian Council Act, 1909
(c) Pitt's India Act, 1784
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (b)
22. Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (a)
23. Which of the following features do not contribute to making the Indian Constitution the bulkiest in the world?
I. Various types of emergencies are considered in detail.
II. It codifies the rights and privileges of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
III. It enumerates all types of Indian citizenship and how it can be terminated.
IV. It contains not only a list of fundamental rights but also the restrictions to be placed on them.
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
24. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives Resolution?
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly.
II. It called for just rights for minorities.
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights.
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) Only III
Ans: (c)
25. Which of the following items is wrongly matched?
(a) December 9, 1947-Constituent Assemby's first meeting
(b) November 26, 1949-the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution
(c) January 24,' 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly
(d) January 26, 1950-the date of commencement of the Constitution
Ans: (a)
26. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force from November 26, 1949 ?
I. Provisions relating to citizenship.
II. Provisions relating to elections.
III. Provisions relating to provisional Parliament.
IV. Fundamental Rights.
(a) I and II
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) None
Ans: (c)
27. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the Legislature?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
28. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by :
(a) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (b)
29. Consider the following statements. The Indian Constitution is :
(1) unwritten Constitution.
(2) written Constitution.
(3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935.
(a) 2 and 1 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: (b)
30. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning:
1. the State treats all religions equally.
2. freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
3. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction.
4. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
31. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the:
(a) Cripps proposals
(b) August Offer
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935
Ans: (b)
32. Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?
(a) Four lions
(b) Chariot wheel
(c) Horse
(d) Words 'Satyameva Jayate’
Ans: (a)
33. The office of Governor-General of India was created by (Asstt Grade 1991)
(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Government of India Act, 1858
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (c)
34. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Vallabhbhai PateI
Ans: (a)
35. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of power to the Indians?
(a) February, 1947
(b) August, 1947
(c) June, 1948
(d) June, 1949
Ans: (c)
36. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? (UDC 1994)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (a)
37. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?
(a) It is completely based on British Constitution
(b) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935
(c) It is a mixture of several Constitutions
(d) It is original
Ans: (c)
38. Match the following:
A. Govt. of India Act, 1919 1. Provincial autonomy
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 2. Separate Electorate
C. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Dyarchy
D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (d)
39. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1947
(c) Constitution of South Africa
(d) Constitution of UK
Ans: (c)
40. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore
(d) New Delhi
Ans: (d)
41. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2005]
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Ans: (c)
42. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? (CDS 2009)
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Acharya J.B. Kriplani
(c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
(d) K.M. Munshi
Ans: (c)
43. Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State? ([NDA 2008)
1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid down
2. It has an unwritten Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
44. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India? (NDA 2008)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) John Mathai
Ans: (a)
45. Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of India prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the Constituent Assembly? (IAS 2006)
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) B.N. Rau
Ans: (d)
46. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India? (CDS 2012)
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the history of India
Ans: (c)
47. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the (CDS 2011)
(a) Minto-Morley Reforms
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(c) Simon Commission
(d) First Round Table Conference
Ans: (c)
48. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A. B. C. and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct? (CDS 2011)
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.
(b) The Pajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories Band C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states.
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.
Ans: (c)
49. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because:
(a) this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929
(b) it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution
(c) the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date
(d) it was an auspicious day
Ans: (a)
50. The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by :
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) M.N. Roy
Ans: (d)
51. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) elected by Provincial Assemblies
(b) elected directly by people
(c) nominated by the government
(d) only representatives of the princely States
Ans: (a)
52. Which of the following statements regarding the' Constituent Assembly are true? (IAS 1993)
1. It was not based on Adult Franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several Committees.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
53. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946? (UTI 1993)
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Ans: (b)
54. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on :
(a) Aug 15, 1947
(b) Jan 30, 1948
(c) Jan 26, 1950
(d) Nov 26, 1929
Ans: (c)
55. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (b)
56. The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by :
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1900
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1919
Ans: (b)
57. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:
(a) British Parliament
(b) Federal Legislature
(c) State Legislature
(d) Governor-General
Ans: (d)
58. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(a) Provincial autonomy
(b) Dyarchy of centre
(c) Bicameral Legislature
(d) All India federation
Ans: (c)
59. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919
(c) Charter Act, 1831
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (d)
60. What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(a) A federation was suggested
(b) Unitary form of government was recommended
(c) Complete independence guaranteed
(d) Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level
Ans: (c)

• Key concept: Constitutional Preamble Sources (Question & Answers)
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
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1. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of: (IAS 1992)
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Ireland
(d) UK
Ans: (b)
2. The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of: (I.Tax1989)
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Switzerland
(d) Russia
Ans: (b)
3. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation? (IAS 1993)
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Dual Judiciary
(c) Three lists in the Constitution
(d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Ans: (d)
4. The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from:
(a) American revolution
(b) French revolution
(c) Russian revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
5. Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State of which country ?
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
(d) Russia
Ans: (a)
6. The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the:
(a) British Monarch
(b) President of USA
(c) President of Egypt
(d) President of Russia
Ans: (a)
7. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Ninth Schedule
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
Ans: (d)
8. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in the: (Railways 1994)
(a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Government
(d) Parliament
Ans: (a)
9. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Presidential Government
(b) Parliamentary Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Independence of Judiciary
Ans: (a)
10. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?
(a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary
(b) Executive is responsible to Legislature
(c) Judiciary is responsible to Executive
(d) Legislature is responsible to Executive
Ans: (b)
11. Match the following:
Constitutional Provisions Sources
A. Federation 1. USA
B. Parliamentary 2. Britain
C. Directive Principle 3. Canada
D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (d)
12. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?
(a) The idea of a federation with a strong centre
(b) The method of presidential elections
(c) The Emergency powers
(d) Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency
Ans: (d)
13. Match the following:  Constitutional Features Sources
A. Rule of Law 1. German Constitution
B. Directive Principles 2. Australian Constitution
C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution
D. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency 4. British Constitution
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (b)
14. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched?
(a) Judicial review – British practice
(b) Concurrent List – Australian Constitution
(c) Directive Principles – Irish Constitution
(d) Fundamental Rights – US Constitution
Ans: (a)
15. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system and law-making procedure?
(a) US Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Canadian Constitution
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
16. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government:
(a) in normal times
(b) in times of Emergency
(c) when the Parliament so desires
(d) at the will of the President
Ans: (b)
17. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not resemble the American Constitution?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Federal form of government
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Parliamentary form of government
Ans: (d)
18. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble?
1. When the Constitution was enacted.
2. The ideals that were to be achieved.
3. The system of government
4. The source of authority
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
19. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?
(a) It is not enforceable in a court of law
(b) the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution
(c) It has been amended twice
(d) All the above are correct
Ans: (a)
20. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:
(a) Italian Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Constitution of USA
Ans: (d)
21. Secularism means: (RRB 1994)
(a) suppression of all religions
(b) freedom of worship to minorities
(c) separation of religion from State
(d) a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith
Ans: (d)
22. In a Federal State: (I. Tax 1993)
(a) States are more powerful than the Centre
(b) Centre is more powerful than States
(c) a Presidential form of government functions
(d) Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction
Ans: (a)
23. India opted for a federal form of government because of: (Railways 1994)
(a) vast-territory
(b) cultural integration
(c) linguistic and regional diversity
(d) administrative convenience
Ans: (c)
24. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads:
(a) We, the people of India – adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution'
(b) We, the people of Constitutent Assembly –adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution
(c) We, the citizens of India – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution
(d) We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution
Ans: (d)
25. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368
(b) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended
(c) Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made
(d) Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective Resolution
Ans: (c)
26. The word 'socialist secular' and 'unity and integrity of the Nation' were added to our Constitution by :
(a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
(b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 46th Amendment of the Constitution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
27. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:
(a) it shall stand part of the Constitution
(b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution
(c) it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution
(d) it has separate entity in the Constitution
Ans: (d)
28. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:
(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy
Ans: (c)
29. India is a democratic republic, because:
(a) there is independence of judiciary
(b) the Head of the State is elected by the people
(c) there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
(d) there is Parliamentary supremacy
Ans: (b)
30. The Preamble of our Constitution:
(a) is a part of the Constitution
(b) contains the spirit of the Constitution
(c) is a limitation upon the granted power
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
31. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Secularism
(b) Sociaiism
(c) Democratic Republic
(d) Federalism
Ans: (d)
32. The source of India's sovereignty lies in the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) People of India
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
Ans: (d)
33. Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed tile basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946? (CDS 2009)
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (d)
34. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: (CDS 2009)
List-I - (Provision of the Constitution of India)
A. Amendment of the Constitution
B. Directive Principles
C. Emergency Power of the President
D. The Union-State Relationship
List-II (Source)
1. Constitution of Germany
2. Constitution of Canada
3. Constitution of South Africa
4. Irish Constitution
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (b)
35. The constitution of India is republican because it (CDS 2012)
(a) provides for an elected Parliament
(b) provides for adult franchise
(c) contains a bill of rights
(d) has no hereditary elements
Ans: (d)
36. Which one among the following statements is not correct ? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with (CDS 2012)
(a) Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws
(b) Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent
(c) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
(d) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status
Ans: (c)
37. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from (SSC Grad 2011)
(a) England
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) France
Ans: (a)
38. The Indian Constitution comprises of (BPSC 2011)
(a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(b) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
(c) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules
(d) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
Ans: (a)
39. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Erstwhile USSR
(d) UK
Ans: (c)
40. The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to :
(a) eliminate inequality in economic and political status
(b) eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs
(c) eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life
(d) eliminate class based society
Ans: (a)
41. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Republic - Head of the State is hereditary Monarch
(b) Sovereign - Constitution rests on people's will
(c) Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country
(d) Secular - State is without any religion of its own
Ans: (d)
42. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in:
(a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj
(b) the Nehru Report
(c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress
(d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly
Ans: (d)
43. The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is :
(a) directive principles
(b) fundamental rights
(c) preamble
(d) citizenship
Ans: (c)
44. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? (IAS 1994)
(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and States
Ans: (d)
45. The Indian Constitution is regarded as :
(a) federal
(b) unitary
(c) parliamentary
(d) federal in form and unitary in spirit
Ans: (d)

• Key concept: Indian Polity & Constitution Objective Questions for Competitive Exams
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

Indian Polity QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

1. Indian Constitutional Development
2. Constitutional Preamble Sources
3. Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
4. Parts/ Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions
5. The Union Executive
6. The Union Legislature
7. The Judiciary
8. The State Executive
9. Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations
10. Public Service Commissions / Attorney General / CAG /Election Commission (EC)
11. Local Government
12. Amendment of the Constitution
13. Fundamental MCQs: Indian Constitution (785 questions)
    1. Part I (Questions from 1 to 100)
    2. Part II (Questions from 101 to 200)
    3. Part III (Questions from 201 to 300)
    4. Part IV (Questions from 301 to 400)
    5. Part V (Questions from 401 to 500)
    6. Part VI (Questions from 501 to 600)
    7. Part VII (Questions from 601 to 700)
    8. Part VIII (Questions from 701 to 785)

Download PDF of MCQs on Indian Polity & Constitution Objective Questions for Competitive Exams

• Key concept: Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy (Question & Answers) • Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams. • Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

1. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted? (Railways 1995)
(a) Article 29 and 31
(b) Article 29 and 32
(c) Article 29 and 30
(d) Article 30 and 31
Ans: (c)
2. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom
(d) Freedom of the press
Ans: (d)
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Constitutional Rights
(d) Natural Rights
Ans: (a)
4. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? (Asstt Grade 1994)
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right against Exploitation
Ans: (b)
5. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by:
(a) war or external aggression
(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(c) internal armed rebellion
(d) financial crisis
Ans: (a)
6. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: (NDA 1992)
(a) sovereignty of the people
(b) equality of opportunity for all
(c) limited government
(d) equality of all before law
Ans: (c)
7. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: (IAS 1995)
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Ans: (d)
8. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented:
(a) in the Supreme Court only
(b) in the High Court only
(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court
(d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court
Ans: (c)
9. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? (IAS 2008)
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
10. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:
(a) religion
(b) caste
(c) population
(d) colour
Ans: (a)
11. The Fundamental individual are:
(a) limited to the State action only
(b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons
(c) meant to protect persons against the police action
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans: (d)
12. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the law to:
(a) all persons living within the territory of India
(b) all Indian citizens living in India
(c) all persons domiciled in India
(d) all persons natural as well as artificial
Ans: (a)
13. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? (IAS 2008)
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Ans: (b)
14. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to:
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 15(4)
Ans: (c)
15. Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression - Include freedom of press
(b) Freedom of conscience - Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
(c) Right to Personal liberty - Include right to carry on any trade or business
(d) Right to Equality - Include principles of natural justice
Ans: (c)
16. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:
(a) not available at all
(b) available to armed forces but not to other forces
(c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff
(d) available only according to law made by Parliament
Ans: (d)
17. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :
(a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)
(b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(c) life and personal liberty under Article 21
(d) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14
Ans: (c)
18. The Constitution names our country as :
(a) Bharat
(b) India, that is Bharat
(c) Hindustan
(d) Aryavarta
Ans: (b)
19. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
(a) the national language of India
(b) the language of communication between the State Governments
(c) the official language of the Union of India
(d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State Governments
Ans: (c)
20. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine? (Delhi Police 1994)
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
Ans: (b)
21. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent
(d) Naturalisation
Ans: (b)
22. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship? (Asstt Grade 1992)
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislatures
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Ans: (a)
23. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship is correct?
(a) If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.
(b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided in India for 5 years.
(c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.
(d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
Ans: (c)
24. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by:
(a) children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950
(b) children born of Indian citizens abroad
(c) incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution
(d) naturalization
Ans: (a)
25. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :
(a) Part II
(b) Part II, Articles 5-11
(c) Part II, Articles 5-6
(d) Part I, Articles 5-11
Ans: (b)
26. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
(a) Article 5
(b) Article 7
(c) Article 8
(d) Article 9
Ans: (d)
27. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is incorrect?
(a) He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948
(c) Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen
(d) Such person has got married in India
Ans: (a)
28. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in:
(a) Part II of the Constitution
(b) the Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) Schedule I of the Constitution
(d) various enactments by Parliament
Ans: (b)
29. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:
1. a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
2. a person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for not less than 10 years within five years of his registration.
3. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
4. a person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
30. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her:
(a) father is a citizen of India
(b) mother is a citizen of India
(c) father is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth
(d) father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth
Ans: (d)
31. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for ______ immediately before making an application:
(a) six months
(b) one year
(c) three years
(d) five years
Ans: (d)
32. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'The Heart and Soul of the Constitution'?
(a) Right of Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (d)
33. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
(a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
(b) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
(c) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
(d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
Ans: (d)
34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Subject List
(a) Stock Exchange State List
(b) Forest Concurrent List
(c) Insurance Union List
(d) Marriage and Divorce Concurrent List
Ans: (a)
35. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) State legislature
Ans: (b)
36. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:
(a) traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
(b) monopoly of trade
(c) sale of incenses
(d) visit to terrorist infected areas
Ans: (a)
37. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to :s
(a) citizens and non-citizens
(b) natural persons as well as artificial persons
(c) citizen only
(d) all persons who have juristic personality
Ans: (a)
38. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(a) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(b) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
(d) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or business
Ans: (b)
39. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans: (b)
40. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they are:
(a) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(b) human rights
(c) transcendental rights
(d) part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
41. Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment.
II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order.
III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment.
IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (c)
42. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on:
(a) the Courts
(b) an effective opposition in Parliament
(c) resources available to the Government
(d) public cooperation
Ans: (c)
43. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble
(c) Fundamental Futies
(d) Directive Principles
Ans: (c)
44. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by:
(a) an amendment of the Constiution
(b) a judgement of the Supreme Court
(c) an order issued by the President
(d) a Legislation adopted by the Parliament
Ans: (a)
45. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties?
I. These are not enforceable.
II. They are primarily moral duties.
III. They are not related to any legal rights.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I and II
Ans: (a)
46. The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is:
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: (c)
47. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV-A of the Constitution are:
(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the non- compliance
(b) like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people
(c) like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable
(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value
Ans: (d)
48. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi Committee
Ans: (c)
49. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:
(a) Fundamental Right of every citizen
(b) Fundamental Duty of every citizen
(c) Directive Principle of State policy
(d) ordinary duty of every citizen
Ans: (b)
50. The Fundamental Duties: I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.
I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.
II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A.
III. are not justiciable.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) III only
Ans: (d)
51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. (CDS 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
52. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution?
I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture.
II. To abide by the Constitution.
III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame.
IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.
(a) I, II and III
(b) l and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
53. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:
(a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights
(b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities
(c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights
(d) giving more power to the executive
Ans: (b)
54. The Constitution describes India as a :
(a) Federation of States
(b) Union of States
(c) Confederation of States
(d) Unitary State
Ans: (b)
55. The 'Union of India' consists of:
I. States
II. Union Territories
III. Acquired Territories
(a) l only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (a)
56. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? (IAS 2006)
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Ans: (a)
57. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of  India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on 1st·July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009)
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans: (c)
58. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? (CDS 2011)
(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and' therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (d)
59. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? (SSC (10+2) 2010)
(a) Election Commission
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Parliament and Assemblies
Ans: (c)
60. In India the right to "freedom of speech and expression" is restricted on the grounds of
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. contempt of court.
3. friendly relation with foreign states.
4. protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2010]
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
61. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quowarranto?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2012)
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
62. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? (CDS 2012)
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Articles 19 of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
63. Right to Information is (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) fundamental right
(b) legal right
(c) neither fundamental right nor legal right
(d) both fundamental right as well as legal Right
Ans: (a)
64. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.
3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
65. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state
(b) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state
(c) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens
(d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian citizens
Ans: (b)
66. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? (CDS 2011)
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (c)
67. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2011)
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
68. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (CDS 2011)
(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
(b) implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralized state
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Ans: (a)
69. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy? (CPO SI 2010)
(a) Golaknath Case
(b) Keshavananda Bharti Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) All the above cases
Ans: (a)
70. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? (BPSC 2011)
(a) Right to constitutional remedies
(b) Freedom to speech
(c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
(d) Freedom to acquire property
Ans: (b)
71. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India? (BPSC 2011)
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Work
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Housing
Ans: (c)
72. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (CSAT 2011)
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans: (a)
73. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:
(a) three organs of government
(b) Centre and States
(c) Legislature and the Executive
(d) Constitution and the States
Ans: (b)
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory.
3. The President's recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.
4. The President must receive the State's opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and III
Ans: (d)
75. Regarding equality before the law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:
(a) the President or a Governor
(b) foreign sovereigns only
(c) the President only
(d) None
Ans: (a)
76. Censorship of the press:
(a) is prohibited by the Constitution
(b) has to be judged by the test of reasonableness
(c) is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19
(d) is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution
Ans: (b)
77. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of
I. defamation
II. contempt of court
III. protecting a scheduled tribe
IV. friendly relations with foreign states
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
78. The right against exploitation prohibits children:
(a) below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses
(b) below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations
(c) below 14 years from working on family farms
(d) from doing all the above
Ans: (b)
79. Which of the following comes under Right to Equality?
1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race.
2. Equal protection of the laws.
3. Equal pay for equal work.
4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
80. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(d) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution
Ans: (b)
81. The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :
(a) citizens of India only
(b) all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
(c) any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons
(d) an aggrieved individual alone
Ans: (b)
82. Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in Indian territory ?
I. Cultural and Educational Rights.
II. Right to Freedom of religion.
III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
IV. Right to personal liberty.
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
83. Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called 'fundamental' ?
I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens.
II. They are superior to ordinary law
III. They are fundamental for governing the country.
IV. They are not absolute.
(a) II and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Ans: (c)
84. The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.
(a) form associations; 44th
(b) property; 44th
(c) against exploitation; 42nd
(d) private property; 42nd
Ans: (b)
85. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?
I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces.
II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President.
III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces.
IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution
(a) I and II
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’? (IAS 2004)
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
Ans: (a)
87. Match the following (IAS 2004)
Articles of the Constitution of India
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 16
4. Article 17
Provision
1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
3. 'Untouchability' is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India lays down that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
2. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person can be convicted for any offence except for the violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
89. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principle
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Judicial Decision
Ans: (b)
90. Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years? (Railways 1993)
(a) Article 45
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 32
Ans: (a)
91. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part V
(d) Part II
Ans: (b)
92. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy? (CBI 1993)
(a) To raise the level of nutrition
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections
(d) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive
Ans: (b)
93. Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Uniform civil code for all citizens
(c) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(d) Promotion of cottage industries
Ans: (d)
94. Which of the following cannot be termed 'Gandhian' among the Directive Principles?
(a) Prevention of cow slaughter
(b) Promotion of cottage industries
(c) Establishment of village panchayats
(d) Uniform civil code for the country
Ans: (d)
95. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV?
I. Equal pay for equal work.
II. Uniform civil code.
III. Small family norm
IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
96. Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the Constitution?
I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life.
II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries.
III. Right to work
IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I and II
Ans: (d)
97. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? (IAS 2004)
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans: (d)
98. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:
(a) contains provrsions relating to elections to Panchayats
(b) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
(c) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission
(d) was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
Ans: (b)
99. The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.
(a) First
(b) Ninth
(c) Thirty-fifth
(d) Thirty-sixth
Ans: (a)
100. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the: (Asstt Comm 2008)
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b)
101. Match the following:
A. Xth Schedule 1: Provision as to the disqualifications on the grounds of defection
B. VIIIth Schedule 2. Union, State and Concurrent Lists
C. VIIth Schedule 3. Languages
D. Vlth Schedule 4. Related to tribal areas
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (c)
102. Which language is not recognized in the 8th Schedule though it is an official language of a State?
(a) English
(b) Sindhi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Kashmiri
Ans: (a)
103. Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
104. In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ? (CDS 2005)
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers Government
Ans: (c)
105. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal? (CDS 2005)
(a) Details of Indian Union and its territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Union Executive
Ans: (b)
 

• Key concept: Parts/ Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions (Question & Answers)
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

Parts/ Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions (Question & Answers)
 
1. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated by any State in India? (Bank PO 1994)
(a) 356
(b) 352
(c) 360
(d) 370
Ans: (a)
2. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the Parliament within:
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 months
Ans: (a)
3. The President's rule can be proclaimed in a State: (CDS 1994)
(a) when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is defeated
(b) if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied that a situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(c) if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(d) when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many matters
Ans: (c)
4. The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a proclamation under Article 356. The action of the President:
(a) cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency powers
(b) cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the courts from reviewing political actions
(c) can be reviewed as it goes against Fundamental Rights
(d) can be reviewed as it is malafide
Ans: (d)
5. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by:
(a) Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
(b) New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution
(c) Lok Sabha in next session after six months
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Ans: (a)
6. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the
(a) amendment of the Constitution
(b) approval of proclamation of emergency
(c) impeachment of President
(d) disapproval of proclamation of emergency
Ans: (c)
7. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360of the Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency Is in operation. it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
8. After approval by' both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of emergency issued by the President shall be valid:
(a) for period of six months
(b) for an indefinite period unless revoked by the subsequent proclamation
(c) for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months
(d) for further period of two months only
Ans: (c)
9. Every proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate at the expiration of:
(a) one month unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
(b) two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
(c) six months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
(d) three years unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
Ans: (b)
10. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the State Government:
(a) cannot legislate
(b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
(c) can legislate on the subject in the State List
(d) is suspended
Ans: (a)
11. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352:
(a) the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List
(b) the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the Constitution is suspended
(c) a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with prior permission of the President
(d) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures
Ans: (a)
12. Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?
(a) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
(b) The States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the President
(c) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(d) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
Ans: (c)
13. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article? (CDS 2009)
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Punjab
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans: (b)
14. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union?
(a) 341
(b) 342
(c) 343
(d) 346
Ans: (c)
15. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 22
(d) Article 27
Ans: (b)
16. Part V of the Constitution deals with:
I. Union Executive
II. Parliament
III. Supreme Court and High Courts
IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I only
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
17. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of scheduled areas and tribes in Schedule V :
(a) may be altered by the Governor
(b) may be altered by Parliament by amendment requiring two-thirds majority
(c) cannot be altered
(d) may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislation
Ans: (d)
18. Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Service Commission for States are enshrined in:
(a) Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324
(b) Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323
(c) Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323
(d) Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318
Ans: (b)
19. Match the following:
Articles Provisions
A. 19(1)(a) 1. Right to reside and settle in any part of the country
B. 19(1)(c) 2. Right to form associations or unions
C. 19(1)(e) 3. Freedom of speech and expression
D. 19(1)(t) 4. Right to practice any profession, or carry on any occupation, business or trade
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (d)
20. Match the following:
A. Part I 1. Fundamental Rights
B. Part III 2. Panchayati Raj
C. Part IX 3. Citizenship
D. Part II 4. The Union and its Territory
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
21. Match the following:
A. Article 61 1. Removal of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Article 67 2. Impeachement of President
C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice President
D. Article 90 4. Removal of Speaker
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 3 4 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (a)
22. Match the following:
A. Abolition of Untouchability 1. Article 24
B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 23
C. Prohibition of Child labour 3. Article 17
D. Prohibition of Traffic in human beings 4. Article 18
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (c)
23. Match the following:
A. Inter-State Council 1. Article 315
B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 280
C. Administrative Tribunals 3. Article 263
D. Union Public Service Commission 4. Article 323(A)
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (d)
24. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? (IAS 2004)
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356
Ans: (a)
25. Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions for the improvement of: (CDS 2004)
(a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Socially and educationally backward classes
(c) Socially and economically backward classes
(d) Educationally and economically backward classes
Ans: (a)
26. Match the following:
A. National Emergency 1. Article 356
B. Constitutional Emergency 2. Article 360
C. Financial Emergency 3. Article 352
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2
Ans: (d)
27. National Emergency has been declared so far:
(a) once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) four times
Ans: (c)
28. The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for each State has been made under:
(a) Article 267
(b) Article 270
(c) Parliamentary Legislation
(d) Presidential order
Ans: (a)
29. During financial emergency, the President can:
1. ask the states to reduce the salaries arid allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the State
2. ask the states to reserve money bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration
3. issue directions to states on financial matters
4. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
30. National emergency can be declared by the President only
I. on grounds of war
II. on grounds of external aggression
III. on grounds of internal disturbance
IV. on the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
31. During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State the President can
I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor
II. declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament
III. assume certain powers of the High Courts
IV. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) II and IV
Ans: (a)
32. When a financial emergency is proclaimed: (I. Tax 1994)
(a) repayment of government debts will stop
(b) payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
(c) salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
(d) Union Budget will not be presented
Ans: (b)
33. On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the President of India:
(a) not even once
(b) in 1962
(c) in 1971
(d) in 1991
Ans: (a)
34. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period (CDS 2012)
(a) not exceeding three months
(b) not exceeding nine months
(c) of one year at a time
(d) of two years at time
Ans: (c)
35. The proclamation of emergency at the first instance can be restricted to:
(a) 3 months
(b) 15 days
(c) 6 months
(d) 60 days
Ans: (c)
36. Every proclamation issued under Article 352 shall be :
(a) laid before each House of the Parliament
(b) laid before the Lok Sabha
(c) decided by the Prime Minister and conveyed to the President
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
37. The President's rule is imposed for the period of:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) till the next election is held
(d) it depends upon the President's wish
Ans: (b)
38. The duration of proclamation of Financial Emergency is :
(a) at the first instance one month
(b) at the first instance two months
(c) at the first instance six months
(d) at the first instance one year
Ans: (b)
39. During the proclamation of National Emergency:
(a) all Fundamental Rights are suspended
(b) Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
(c) Article 32 cannot be suspended
(d) Article 19 cannot be suspended
Ans: (b)
40. Emergency can be proclaimed:
(a) in whole of the country
(b) only in that part of country where actual aggression has taken place
(c) in any part of the country
(d) in the entire country or any part of territory of India
Ans: (d)
41. A resolution for the revocation of proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by:
(a) ten members of Rajya Sabha
(b) ten members of Lok Sabha
(c) ten members of Parliament
(d) one-tenth of total membership of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
42. A resolution ratifying the proclamation of National Emergency requires to be passed:
(a) by Parliament
(b) by each House of Parliament
(c) by both the Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting
(d) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings with majority of total membership of each House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting
Ans: (b)
43. The President can issue proclamation of emergency:
(a) on the advice of Prime Minister
(b) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(c) in his own decision
(d) when the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Ans: (d)
44. Which of the following is/are resultant of a proclamation of National Emergency because of war?
I. The Union Government can give directions to the States about how the executive power of the State is to be exercised.
II. The Fundamental Rights stand automatically suspended.
III. The State Legislature is suspended.
IV. Parliament can make laws with respect to any subject in the State List.
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I only
(d) I and IV
Ans: (d)
45. In the case of a proclamation of emergency on grounds of war or external aggression:
(a) all Fundamental Rights will be automatically suspended
(b) the right to move a court for enforcement of any Fundamental Right is suspended
(c) the President may order the suspension of enforcement of any Fundamental Right except Article 20-21
(d) Parliament may authorise suspension of all Fundamental Rights
Ans: (c)

• Key concept: The Union Executive (Question & Answers)
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

The Union Executive (Question & Answers)
1. In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha members: (Railways 1991)
(a) is same
(b) differs according to the geographical size of the respective State
(c) differs according to the number of votes a member represents
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
2. The President of India is:
(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces
(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
(c) Head of the Government
(d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and Executive Head of the Union
Ans: (d)
3. The President can be removed by the way of impeachment which can be made only:
(a) by the Supreme Court
(b) by the Rajya Sabha
(c) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha through impeachment
(d) cannot be impeached
Ans: (c)
4. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The President may continue to be a member of Parliament even after assuming charge of the Presidential office
(b) The President is not barred from holding any other office of profit even after assuming charge of Presidential office
(c) The President is entitled to use his official residence only on payment of rent fixed
(d) The emolument and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office
Ans: (c)
5. In the election of the President, each Member of the electoral college has:
(a) one vote
(b) as many votes as there are candidates
(c) one vote with value attached to it
(d) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates
Ans: (d)
6. The value of a vote of a Member of Parliament for the election of the President is determined by dividing the:
(a) nation's population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members
(b) nation's population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of Paliament
(c) the total value of votes of members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected Members of the two Houses of Parliament
(d) particular State's population as per the latest census by the number of Members of Parliament elected from that State
Ans: (c)
7. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President
Ans: (a)
8. An individual who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers, but he has to become a member of either House within a period of: (RRB 1991)
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Ans: (d)
9. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India? (Bank PO 1992)
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council
Ans: (d)
10. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Secretary to the Government of India
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
11. The Chief Minister of Union Territory where such a setup exists, is appointed by the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lt. Governor
(d) Majority party in Legislature
Ans: (c)
12. The five-year term of the President is calculated from the:
(a) first day of the month he assumes charge
(b) first day of the month following the month he assumes charge
(c) day he assumes charge
(d) date of his election result
Ans: (c)
13. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the:
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
14. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion? (Asstt Grade 1994)
(a) In appointing the Prime Minister
(b) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
15. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is :
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (a)
16. Which of the following regarding the election of the President is correct?
(a) A candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected
(b) The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the President
(c) The Presidential election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stand dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the Electoral College
(d) The total value of the votes allotted to both Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken together
Ans: (a)
17. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments to the President?
(a) They do not require any parliamentary sanction
(b) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency
(c) They are shown separately in the budget
(d) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India
Ans: (d)
18. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of the Air Force
(d) Chief of the Army
Ans: (a)
19. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate?
(a) The President shall be bound by the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) The President shall be bound by the advice given by the Council of Ministers
(c) The President shall act on the advice of the Prime Minister who shall tender such advice in consultation with his cabinet
(d) The President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers and he may return such advice for reconsideration
Ans: (b)
20. The Constitution guarantees the following privileges to the President of India:
(a) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President in any court during his term of office
(b) No process for the arrest or impeachment of the President shall be issued from any court during his term of office
(c) The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in exercise of those powers and duties
(d) No civil proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted against the President in any court during the term of his office
Ans: (d)
21. The power to grant pardons, reprieve or remissions of punishment under Article 72 is exercised by the President of India:
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) on his own as Head of the Union
(c) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(d) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet
Ans: (c)
22. The pardoning power given to the President of India under Article 72 can be exercised:
(a) only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction
(b) during or after trial but never before trial
(c) at any time before, during or after the trial
(d) either before or after the trial but never during the trial of the case
Ans: (c)
23. The only President of India who was elected unopposed is : (CDS 1992)
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Ans: (c)
24. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used? (IAS 1992)
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
(b) Proportional representation through list system
(c) Collective voting system
(d) Secondary voting system
Ans: (a)
25. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the: (IAS 1993)
(a) Hindu Code Bill
(b) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(c) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(d) Dowry Prohibition Bill
Ans: (c)
26. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once again passes the Bill in Its original form, then the President:
(a) can once again return the Bill for further reconsideration
(b) can ask for a referendum on the Bill
(c) has to give assent to the Bill
(d) can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
Ans: (c)
27. Which of the following is not true regarding the election of the President?
(a) The voting power of an MLA is made proportionate to the population he represents
(b) Voting power of the elected members of the Parliament is made equal to the voting power of all elected members of the Legislative
assemblies
(c) Voting power of the elected members of Parliament is determined by dividing the total voting power of the State by the number of elected members of the Parliament
(d) The voting power of an elected member of State Legislative Assembly is determined by dividing the total population of the State by the total number of members of Vidhan Sabha and further dividing the quotient obtained by 1000
Ans: (d)
28. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested. in the President
(b) The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy and Air Force) are under the direct control of the President
(c) The responsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet
(d) All important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
29. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice-President is available? (Asstt Grade 1992)
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Auditor General of India
(d) Senior most Governor of a State
Ans: (b)
30. Which is .true regarding the President of India?
1. He is the Chief Executive.
2. He is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces.
3. He is the titular head of the State.
4. He is part of the Union Legislature.
(a) I and III
(b) I and II
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
31. Who among the following' are appointed by the President of India? (IAS 1994)
I. Chairman, Finance Commission
II. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
III. Chief Minister of a Union Territory
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Ans: (b)
32. An ordinance promulgated by the President:
(a) will lapse automatically after 2months
(b) will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament
(c) will automatically become a law after 6 months
(d) will continue to be in force till it is superseded by an Act of the Parliament
Ans: (b)
33. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the President:
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) in his own discretion
(c) on the advice of the Vice- President
(d) on the basis of election results
Ans: (a)
34. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India? (NDA 1995)
I. Governors of States.
II. The Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts.
III. The Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court.
IV. The Vice-President.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Ans: (b)
35. When the Vice-President officiates as President, he draws the salary of:
(a) President
(b) Member of Parliament
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans: (a)
36. Which of the following is correct?
(a) If both the President and Vice-President resign, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha will act as President till a new President is elected
(b) The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for contesting the Presidential election
(c) In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for the residual period of the President's tenure
(d) In India, the President is part of the Parliament
Ans: (d)
37. The position of the Vice-President of India resembles, to a great extent, the position of the Vice-President of:
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) New Zealand
Ans: (a)
38. The Vice-President's letter of resignation is to be addressed to the:
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Ans: (c)
39. The candidate for Vice-Presidential election must possess the qualifications prescribed for the Presidential candidate except that ne must be:
(a) a citizen of India
(b) over 35 years of age
(c) holding no office of profit under the Government
(d) qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (d)
40. Who has the authority to remove the Vice-President from his office before the expiry of his term?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (c)
41. Which one of the following resigned as Vice-President to contest for the office of the President?
(a) Dr. S.Radhakrishnan
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) Fakhruddin AIi Ahmed
(d) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
Ans: (b)
42. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as President, the duties of the Chairman are performed by:
(a) himself
(b) a newly elected Chairman
(c) the Deputy Chairman
(d) a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the Chairman
Ans: (c)
43. Disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President are settled:
(a) in the Supreme Court
(b) by the Election Commission
(c) by a Parliamentary Committee
(d) in the Supreme Court of High Courts
Ans: (a)
44. What function is specifically prescribed by the Constitution for the Vice-President of India?
(a) Vice-Chancellorship of Universities
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) To assist the President in times of Emergency
(d) None of the above is correct
Ans: (b)
45. When the Vice-President acts as President he gets the emoluments of the:
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) President in addition to what he gets as Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
46. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, has to be held:
(a) within six months of the occurrence of the vacancy
(b) within a year of the occurrence of the vacancy
(c) as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy
(d) after the expiration of the term if the remaining period is less than three months
Ans: (c)
47. Who elects the Vice-President?
(a) The same electoral college which elects the President
(b) Members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) An electoral college consisting of members of Parliament
(d) Members of Parliament at a joint Meeting
Ans: (c)
48. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the: (IAS 2004)
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: (d)
49. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:
1. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of all the members of the both Houses of Parliament.
2. The Constitution is silent about a person who is to discharge the duties of the Vice-President during the period of vacancy.
Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
50. If a resolution impeaching the President is passed, the President is considered to have been removed:
(a) from the date on which the resolution is passed
(b) once the Chief Justice of India takes out an order of the effect
(c) as soon as the Gazette of India notifies it
(d) once the new incumbent is elected
Ans: (a)
51. A resolution for impeaching the President can be moved after at least fourteen days' notice signed by:
(a) not less than 50 members of the House
(b) not less than one-third of the total number of members of the House
(c) not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House
(d) at least 100 members of Lok Sabha and 50 members of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c)
52. The Constitution:
(a) is silent on the President's re-election to the office
(b) allows re-election of a person to the President's post
(c) restricts a person to remain President for only two terms
(d) has been amended to allow a person only one term as President
Ans: (b)
53. Which of the following groups take/takes part in the election of the President of India?
1. All Members of Parliament.
2. All Members of State Legislative Assemblies.
3. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
4. Elected members of State Legislative Councils.
(a) I and III
(b) I and II
(c) I only
(d) III only
Ans: (d)
54. The executive authority of the Union is vested by the Constitution in the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Cabinet
(d) Union Legislature
Ans: (b)
55. The legislative powers of the President include all the following but:
(a) the power to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament
(b) the power to summon a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve a deadlock
(c) the power of nominating 12 members to the Lok Sabha
(d) the right to address either House at any time and it requires the attendance of members for this purpose
Ans: (c)
56. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of India?
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
(c) P.N. Bhagwati
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
57. Which of the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the President is/are not correct?
1. He has the pardoning power in respect of sentence by court-martial.
2. He can grant reprieve and respite in the case of punishment for an offence against any law of the land, Union or State.
3. He alone can pardon a sentence of death.
4. His exercise of the power of pardon is open to judicial review.
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) II and IV
Ans: (b)
58. Mark the correct response:
(a) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President, whenever he requires
(b) The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions to the President
(c) It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to communicate the decision to the President
(d) The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to give the information he has
Ans: (a)
59. Mark the correct response:
(a) The President has power to remove the Prime Minister but not any of his ministers unless so advised by the Prime Minister
(b) The President has power neither to remove the Prime Minister nor any of his ministers unless the Prime Minister loses the support of majority in Lok Sabha and tenders his resignation
(c) The President can remove Prime Minister the moment he loses his majority in the Lok Sabha
(d) The President has a power to remove any of the ministers at his pleasure
Ans: (b)
60. When the charge against the President is preferred by either' House of Parliament and is being investigated by other House:
(a) the President has a right to appear and to be represented at such investigation
(b) the President has no right to appear and to be represented at such investigation
(c) the President has a right of representation but he does not have a right of personal hearing
(d) the President has a right to appear and to be represented either personally or through a legal practitioner
Ans: (d)
61. The President of India is vested with the ordinance making power by Article 126, He exercises this power:
(a) when Lok Sabha is not in session and circumstances .exist which render it necessary for the President to take immediate action
(b) when Council of States is not in session and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action
(c) when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and President is satisfied that circumstances exist which made it necessary for him to take the immediate action
(d) in all the above circumstances
Ans: (c)
62. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Charan Singh
Ans: (b)
63. Which one of the following statements is correct? (CDS 2005)
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by:
(a) a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha
(b) a majority of the then members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) a two-thirds majority of the total members of the Lok Sabha
(d) a two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha members present and voting
Ans: (a)
64. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The President of India cannot appoint anyone as Union Minister not recommended by Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(CDS 2005)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
65. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the power to promulgate Ordinances lies with the President only.
2. The power to declare emergency in a State in India lies with the President only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
66.
1. When Vice-President acts as President of India, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (Asstt Comm 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
67. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the 'Vote of Confidence' that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha? (CDS 2009)
(a) VP Singh
(b) PV Narasimha Rao
(c) Chandra Shekhar
(d) Manmohan Singh
Ans: (d)
68. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister? (NDA 2011)
(a) Federalism
(b) Representative Legislature
(c) Universal Adult Franchise
(d) Parliamentary Democracy
Ans: (b)
69. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (CDS 2010)
1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act 1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, this will be disqualification to contest the election.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
70. Which one among the following" is the basis of the difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential system of government? (Asstt Commt 2010)
(a) Power of Judicial review
(b) Method of election of President/Head of the State
(c) Legislative supremacy in law making
(d) Relation between the legislature and the executive
Ans: (b)
71. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India:
1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration fo the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (CDS 2011)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
72. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from (CSAT 2011)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans: (b)
73. The Prime Minister, at the time of the appointment:
1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.
2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the. Houses of Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months.
3. must be either a nominated or elected member of one of the Houses of Parliament.
4. must be an elected member of only Lok Sabha.
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) IV only
Ans: (a)
74. The Union Council of Ministers consists of:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Cabinet Minister
(c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
Ans: (d)
75. The portfolios are allocated to the ministers by:
(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) collective decision of the Council of Ministers
(d) individual choice
Ans: (b)
76. The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minister of India are decided by the:
(a) Constitution
(b) Cabinet
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Ans: (c)
77. The Prime Minister is said to hold office during the pleasure of the President but in reality, he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence of:
(a) the electorate
(b) the Lok Sabha
(c) the party to which he belongs
(d) Parliament
Ans: (b)
78. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister:
(a) the Ministry is dissolved
(b) fresh general elections must take place
(c) the Cabinet may choose another leader
(d) the President decides what to do
Ans: (a)
79. The Prime Minister is:
(a) elected by Lok Sabha
(b) elected by the Parliament
(c) appointed by the President
(d) nominated by the party enjoying the majority in Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
80. The Prime Minister:
(a) is head of government
(b) is the leader of Lok Sabha
(c) may change the portfolios of the Ministers at will
(d) may do all the above
Ans: (d)
81. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) It is discretionary
(d) If the Council of Ministers so desires
Ans: (a)
82. The rank of the different Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is determined by the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet Secretary
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
83. In Parliamentary Government, Ministers remain in office so long as they enjoy:
(a) the confidence of the upper house of the legislature
(b) support of the armed forces
(c) the confidence of the popular chamber of the legislature
(d) popular support
Ans: (c)
84. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the:
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Minto-Morley Reforms
(c) Independence Act, 1947
(d) Constitution of India
Ans: (d)
85. If a Minister of a State wants to resign, to whom he should address the letter of resignation?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(c) Governor of the State
(d) Leader of his political party
Ans: (a)
86. What is the position of a 'Minister of State' in the Central Government? (Teachers' Exam 1993)
(a) He is the nominee of the State Governor
(b) He is the nominee of the State Cabinets
(c) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet
(d) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet
Ans: (d)
87. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the Defence Services of India?
(a) Cabinet Committee on political affairs
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Defence Minister
Ans: (d)
88. The executive power is vested in the President but it is actually used by him on the advice of:
(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Council of Ministers
(c) Parliament
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
89. An 'office of profit' which disqualifies a person from being a member of the Union or State Legislature does not include office held under:
(a) the Government of India
(b) a State Government
(c) a local authority
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
90. In practice, the policy of the Government is shaped by:
(a) all the ministers
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Cabinet
(d) special committees
Ans: (c)
91. In a parliamentary democracy the:
(a) Executive controls the Legislature
(b) Executive and Legislature are strictly separate
(c) Judiciary controls both Legislature and Executive
(d) Legislature controls the Executive
Ans: (d)
92. Ministers may be chosen from:
I. Lok Sabha
II. Rajya Sabha
III. Outside the Legislature
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (d)
93. Acts of State done in the name of the President of India are required to be countersigned by way of authentication by:
(a) a Minister
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Speaker
(d) a Secretary to the Government
Ans: (d)
94. The Ministers are individually responsible to:
(a) the President
(b) the House of the people
(c) the Prime Minister
(d) the House of which they are members
Ans: (a)
95. In the matter of State legislation the President may:
(a) exercise only suspensive veto power
(b) may withhold assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills
(c) withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration
(d) directly disallow any bill which he considers anti-national
Ans: (c)
96. Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and the Governor?
(a) Power to pardon a sentence by court-martial
(b) Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State List
(c) Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances
(d) Power to remit a sentence by court-martial
Ans: (c)
97. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(b) The Governor of the State holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(c) The Prime Minister' can only be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be, removed at the pleasure of the President
Ans: (b)
98. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the President of India
(b) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament
(c) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
(d) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
99. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if: (IAS 1993)
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
Ans: (c)
100. If a Minister loses a no-confidence motion, then:
(a) the Minister resigns
(b) the whole Council of Ministers resigns
(c) Lok Sabha is dissolved
(d) only Prime Minister and that Minister resign
Ans: (b)
101. Consider the following Vice-President of India:
1. V.V. Giri
2. M. Hidayatullah
3. B.D. Jatti
4. G.S. Pathak
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures? [CDS 2009]
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 4-1-3-2
Ans: (a)
102. Who among the following has held the office of the Vice-President of India? (IAS 2008)
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
103. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is: (Rallways 1992)
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 23 years
(d) 21 years
Ans: (b)
104. Which of the following powers is not enjoyed by the President of India in the event of emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution? (Asstt Grade 1991)
(a) He can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(b) He is authorised to direct any State to exercise its Executive power in a particular manner
(c) He is authorised, during the recess of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India pending sanction of the Parliament
(d) He is authorised to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
105. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice-President can act as President for a maximum period of:
(a) 2 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Ans: (d)
106. Which of the following is true in context of the President?
(a) He addresses the first session of the Parliament after each general election of the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year
(b) He addresses the first session of Parliament at the beginning of each year as well as the last session held at the end of each year
(c) He addresses the Parliament daily
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
107. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?
(a) In all circumstances
(b) In no circumstances
(c) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved
(d) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
108. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha
(d) Either House of Parliament
Ans: (d)
109. Who among the following has the power to form a new State within the Union of India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
110. With reference to the Presidential election in India, consider the following statements:
1. The nomination paper of a candidate for the Presidential election should be signed by at least 50 electors as proposers and another 50 as seconders.
2. The prescribed security deposit in the Presidential election is Rs.25,000. Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
111. Though the President is not a Member of Parliament, he performs certain functions as an integral part of the Parliament. Which are these?
I. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
II. He accords assent to the bills passed by Parliament.
III. He summons both Houses of Parliament.
IV. He orders elections to the Parliament when its term is over.
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and II
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
112. Which of the following statements is/are True?
I. Disputes related to the election of a President are decided by the Supreme Court.
II. Disputes related to vacancy in the electoral college are settled by the Election Commission.
III. In case the election of a President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by a President before the date of such decision of the court get invalidated.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) I only
(d) III only
Ans: (c)
113. For the election of the President, the weight of a member's vote depends on:
I. the strength of his political party in Parliament.
II. the State to which he belongs.
III. population represented.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) III only
Ans: (c)
114. Which of the following statements are true?
I. The presidential election is held before the expiration of the term of the outgoing President.
II. The term of the President's office can be extended if general elections for any Assembly are not held due to an emergency.
III. If the term of any President is cut short by reason of his death, resignation or removal, then the election of next President should be held within three months of the occurrence of the vacancy.
IV. The Indian Constitution is silent on the number of times a person can be re-elected, President.
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Ans: (d)
115. The President selects as Prime Minister:
1. the leader of the party in majority in Lok Sabha.
2. anyone he wishes to.
3. the person who is in a position to win the confidence of the majority in Lok Sabha.
4. the leader of the party having a majority of seats in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
(a) I only
(b) III or IV
(c) I or III
(d) I, III or IV
Ans: (b)
116. Each member of Parliament who participates in the Presidential election is entitled to cast as many votes as are obtained by dividing the total number of votes of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States by the total number of elected members of the two Houses of Parliament. This ensures:
(a) parity between the voting strengths of the States and the Parliament
(b) parity among the States
(c) uniformity of representation of the different States
(d) All the above
Ans: (a)
117. Put in chronological order the following names of Presidents of India.
1. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
2. V.V.Giri
3. Dr. Zakir Hussain
4. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, III, II, IV
(c) II, I, III, IV
(d) I, III, IV, II
Ans: (b)
118. The President takes an oath before assuming office in the presence of the Chief Justice of India. If the Chief Justice is not available, he takes the oath in the presence of:
(a) the Vice-President
(b) the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court
(c) the Attorney-General
(d) Election Commissioner
Ans: (b)
119. Which of the following Emergencies can be declared by the President on his own?
I. Emergency on account of armed rebellion.
II. Financial Emergency.
III. President's Rule in a State.
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
120. The President may appoint all the following except:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Governor
(c) High Court judges
(d) Rajya Sabha Chairman
Ans: (d)

• Key concept: The Union Legislature (Question & Answers)
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

The Union Legislature (Question & Answers)
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected according to :([Delhi Police 1994)
(a) Cumulative Vote System
(b) Single Non-transferable Vote System
(c) Single Transferable Vote System
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
2. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of: (NDA 1992)
(a) 200
(b) 210
(c) 250
(d) 260
Ans: (c)
3. At present the Rajya Sabha consists of _______ members.
(a) 250
(b) 245
(c) 238
(d) 240
Ans: (b)
4. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Malgaonkar
(b) P. Upendra
(c) Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar
(d) Hukam Singh
Ans: (a)
5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker? (IAS 2004)
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram
(b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Balirarn Bhagat
(d) Hukarn Singh
Ans: (a)
6. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act, is the final authority to decide whether a member of Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification due to defection?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Election Commission
(d) High Court
Ans: (a)
7. Who is authorised to decide a dispute regarding disqualification of a member of Parliament ?
(a) Election Commissioner
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) A Committee set up by the Parliament
Ans: (c)
8. Match the following:
Parliamentary Terms
A. Starred Question
B. Unstarred Question
C. Short Notice Question
Meaning
1. One asked by a member on matters of public importance of an urgent nature
2. One for which the Concerned minister has to lay on the table a written answer
3. One for which an oral answer is required to be given by a minister on the floor of the House
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 1
Ans: (d)
9. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at least how many times in a year?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Four times
Ans: (c)
10. What is 'zero hour'?
(a) When the proposals of the opposition are considered
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised
(c) Interval between the morning- and afternoon sessions
(d) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
11. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office till a new:
(a) Lok Sabha is formed
(b) Speaker is appointed by the President
(c) Speaker is elected when the new House meets
(d) Government is formed
Ans: (c)
12. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Leader of Opposition
Ans: (b)
13. Parliament's expenditure is controlled by:
(a) President
(b) Finance Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans: (d)
14. Which of the following States has the largest percentage of reserved parliamentary seats? (Teachers' Exam 1993)
(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (c)
15. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He needs not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within 6 months from the date of his election
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the expiry of its term
(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker
Ans: (d)
16. What is the minimum percentage of seats a party should get to be recognised as the opposition party in the legislature?
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) No such limit
Ans: (d)
17. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of parliamentary control over the Budget? (IAS 1993)
(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the Budget
(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President's recommendation
(d) Parliament cannot increase a tax without the President's recommendation
Ans: (a)
18. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of:
(a) Ministry of Human Affairs
(b) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President
Ans: (a)
19. The maximum number of representatives of the States in Lok Sabha is:
(a) 525
(b) 530
(c) 545
(d) 550
Ans: (b)
20. Which of the following States sends the maximum number of members to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal
(d) All equal
Ans: (a)
21. Who was the first leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Y.B. Chavan
(b) Bhola Paswan
(c) Kamlapati Tripathi
(d) CM. Stephen
Ans: (c)
22. Which is House better placed with regard to control over the executive?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both are equally placed
(d) It depends from which House the Prime Minister comes
Ans: (a)
23. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Constitutional amendment
(c) President
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
24. Amongst the following, for whose removal Parliament's resolution is not needed?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Governor of a State
(c) Judge of Supreme Court
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans: (c)
25. To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration? (I. Tax 1992)
(a) Ordinary Bills
(b) Finance Bills
(c) Bills passed by both the Houses of the Parliament
(d) Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution
Ans: (b)
26. The first woman film star nominated/ elected to the Rajya Sabha was:
(a) Nargis Dutt
(b) Vyjayanthimala
(c) Hema Malini
(d) Jayalalitha
Ans: (a)
27. According to the Constitution of India, the maximum number of members representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed: (CDS 1992)
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Ans: (c)
28. What type of Party system has been evolved in India?
(a) Single Party
(b) Bi-Party
(c) Multi-Party
(d) Party less
Ans: (c)
29. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of: (CDS 1994)
(a) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) the Deputy Prime Minister
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
Ans: (b)
30. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:
(a) all the members of Parliament
(b) the people directly
(c) all the members of Lok Sabha
(d) the members of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
31. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the grades of officers in the Central Secretariat?
1. Secretary
2. Additional Secretary
3. Joint Secretary
4. Deputy Secretary
5. Under Secretary
6. Director
(a) 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 5
(b) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6
(c) 6, 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
(d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3
Ans: (a)
32. Which of the following committees does not consist of any member from the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Public Grievances Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (a)
33. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is: (CDS 1992)
(a) elected by Union Cabinet
(b) appointed by Speaker
(c) appointed by President
(d) elected by members of PAC
Ans: (b)
34. Match the following:
A. Business Advisory Committee 1. Looks into the mode of public expenditure
B. Select Committee 2. Examines the veracity of budget estimates
C. Estimates Committee 3. Considers a bill and submits to the House a report on it
D. Public Accounts Committee 4. Prepares timetable for the whole session
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (d)
35. The largest committee of Parliament of India is:
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans: (b)
36. Which of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as 'watch-dog' on departmental expenditure and irregularities?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Committee of Public Assurances
Ans: (c)
37. Which of the following committees exist only in the Lok Sabha?
1. Business Advisory Committee.
2. Committee on Private Members Bill and Resolutions.
3. Committee on Petitions.
4. Committee on Assurances.
5. Estimates Committee.
(a) I, II and III
(b) III and IV
(c) II and V
(d) II, IV and V
Ans: (c)
38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Parliamentary Standing Committee Chaired by
(a) Public Accounts Committee - Member of Opposition
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings - Lok Sabha member
(c) Committee on Private Member's Bill and Resolutions - Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Business Advisory Committee - Finance Minister
Ans: (d)
39. Which of the following statements regarding the Esstimates Committee are correct?
1. No member of the Rajya Sabha is associated with it.
2. It has twenty members.
3. Its members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation for a period of one year.
4. The Speaker nominates one of its members to be its Chairman.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
40. Which of the following is concerned with the regularity and economy of expenditure of government?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Committee on Offices of Profit
Ans: (a)
41. The Estimates Committee:
(a) consists of 30 members appointed by the Speaker
(b) consists of 15 members each from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) has its members elected according to the system of proportional representation
(d) has a Union Minister as its Chairman
Ans: (c)
42. Which of the following committees is not created by the Speaker's nomination of members?
(a) Committee on Privileges
(b) Committee on Petitions
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (d)
43. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements: (IAS 2004)
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
44. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ? (IAS 1995)
(a) Elected members to the Lower House of Parliament
(b) Elected members of the. Upper House of Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of State Legislature
Ans: (d)
45. Funds belonging to the Government of India are kept in:
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Public Accounts Fund of India
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
46. In normal times, the Union Parliament:
(a) can legislate on any item in the State List if the President so desires
(b) can legislate on any item in the State List if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by 2/3rd majority
(c) can legislate on any item in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by 2/3rd majority
(d) cannot legislate on any item in the State List
Ans: (c)
47. Which of the following is true? (CDS 1992)
(a) The Chairman and Deputy Chairman, both are not members of Rajya Sabha
(b) In the election of President, nominated members of State Legislative Assembly. do not take part while in the election of Vice-President they take part
(c) In the 1992 election of President of India, the members of Union Territories participated for the first time
(d) India follows the British convention that the Finance Minister should be a member of Lower House
Ans: (c)
48. The representation to States in the Rajya Sabha is given on the basis of:
(a) an equal number of seats to each State
(b) in proportion to their population
(c) in proportion to their size
(d) in accordance with their resources
Ans: (b)
49. If the Speaker of the Lower House of a State wants to resign, his letter of resignation is to be addressed to the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Deputy Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) President
Ans: (b)
50. Which of the following features restrict the authority of Parliament in India?
1. A written Constitution clearly prescribes its scope of operation.
2. The Supreme Court can strike down a law passed by Parliament if it contravenes any of the Constitutional provisions.
3. Parliament is limited by the incorportation of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) None as Parliament is sovereign in India
Ans: (a)
51. Which of the following matters are not affected in case of dissolution of the Lok Sabha?
1. A bill originating and pending in the Rajya Sabha.
2. Pending notices, motions and resolutions in the Lok Sabha.
3. A joint sitting of Parliament if notification of such a sitting has been given before the dissolution.
4. Bills passed by both Houses and sent to the President for his assent.
5. Bills returned by President for reconsideration.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III, IV and V
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, IV and V
Ans: (b)
52. A dissolution does not affect:
(a) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha
(b) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha
(c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha
(d) Any of the above
Ans: (c)
53. If an unqualified or disqualified person sits and votes in Parliament:
(a) he is liable to be prosecuted and jailed
(b) he may be fined Rs.500 per day of his so sitting
(c) he may be imprisoned by the House
(d) nothing can be done
Ans: (b)
54. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct? (IAS 2004)
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Ans: (c)
55. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by the:
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice-President
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (a)
56. By 'charged' expenditure is meant:
(a) expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India which is non-votable
(b) expenditure incurred for which payment is pending
(c) expenditure that the President can incur without Parliament's approval
(d) the sum required to meet all expenditure proposed to be made from the Consolidated Fund of India
Ans: (a)
57. An Appropriation Bill:
I. is necessary to draw money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. cannot be amended to vary the amount of any charged expenditure.
III. Includes only the expenditure charged on the Consoliated Fund of India.
IV. is required to withdraw money from the Contingency Fund of India.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
58. Which Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha at present?
I. Delhi
II. Puducherry
III. Lakshadweep
IV. Chandigarh
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) I and II
Ans: (d)
59. Consider the following statements on Financial Bill and say which is/are correct?
1. It is the sameasa Money Bill.
2. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
3. It can be amended in the Rajya Sabha.
4. It cannot be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.
(a) I only
(b) II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Ans: (b)
60. As a result of prorogation which of the following is not affected?
(a) Resolutions
(b) Bills
(c) Motions
(d) Notices
Ans: (b)
61. The members of the Rajya Sabha are:
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
(d) elected by the members of the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States
Ans: (a)
62. The two Houses of Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:
1. financial matters
2. responsibility of the Council of Ministers
3. amendment procedure
4. election of President
(a) III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and II
Ans: (d)
63. At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be passed
(a) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses
(b) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses
(c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting
(d) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting
Ans: (c)
64. The privileges enjoyed by the members of Parliament individually include:
(a) freedom of arrest in all cases
(b) freedom of attendance as witness while Parliament is in session
(c) unlimited freedom of speech
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
65. On what grounds can a person be disqualified as a voter?
1. Unsoundness of mind
2. Corrupt or illegal practice
3. Crime
4. Non-residence
(a) I, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
66. Who among the following has the final power to maintain order within the House of People?
(a) Marshal of the House
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief of Security Staff
Ans: (c)
67. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution:
(a) passed by 2/3rd majority of its total members present
(b) passed by a simple majority of its total members present
(c) moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
68. If a member of Parliament voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign· country:
(a) he will be penalized
(b) he will continue to be a member of Parliament
(c) he will be disqualified from membership
(d) he will have a choice of renouncing either
Ans: (c)
69. Which of the following is not true?
(a) A person can be a member of both Houses of Parliament
(b) There is no bar to a person contesting to as many seats and as many legislatures as he likes
(c) A member of Lok Sabha cannot hold an office of profit under the Government
(d) The population of a State is not the sole consideration for allotment of seats in the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
70. Who among the following fixes the salaries and the allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Cabinet
(d) Parliament
Ans: (d)
71. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans: (c)
72. The time gap between two sessions of the Parliament should not exceed:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 1 year
Ans: (b)
73. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is: (Asstt Grade 1992)
(a) elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
(b) nominated by the President
(c) elected by members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected by Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
Ans: (c)
74. The Union Territories get representation in (Asstt Grade 1991)
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) both Houses of Parliament
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
75. The quorum required to hold meetings of the legislative chambers is what fraction of the total membership of the House? (CBI 1993)
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/6
(d) 1/10
Ans: (d)
76. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to (Railways 1994)
(a) elect the President of India
(b) elect the Vice-President of India
(c) adopt a Constitution amending Bill
(d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagree
Ans: (d)
77. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every:
(a) One year
(b) Second year
(c) Third year
(d) Fifth-year
Ans: (b)
78. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed/returned by Rajya Sabha within:
(a) 14 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 1 month
(d) 3 months
Ans: (a)
79. What is the minimum age for election/appointment as a member of the Rajya Sabha? (RRB 1994)
(a) 35 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 40 years
Ans: (b)
80. What is the minimum age for being the member of the Parliament? (NABARD 1991)
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (b)
81. Which of the following best defines the Parliamentary term 'Crossing the Floor'? (SBI PO 1991)
(a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian
(b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some other Parliamentarian
(c) Leaving a House by a minister in between in order to attend the other House
(d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order to boycott the proceedings of the House
Ans: (a)
82. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the House?
(a) Whenever he desires
(b) Whenever the House desires
(c) Only in the event of equality of votes
(d) Whenever his party directs
Ans: (c)
83. Prorogation of the House means:
(a) a House has been brought in session
(b) the session of the House has been terminated
(c) the House itself stands terminated
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
84. Which of the following is true?
1. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution ofLok Sabha.
2. If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill, the Bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans: (b)
85. The Speaker may be removed:
(a) by a resolution of a House-passed by the majority of total membership of the House
(b) by a resolution of the House passed by a 2/3rd majority of members present and voting
(c) by a resolution of the House moved after 14 days clear notice and passed by a majority of all the then members of the House
(d) by a resolution moved after 14 days notice and passed by the majority of the members present
Ans: (c)
86. When a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the Speaker:
I. does not take part in the proceedings of the House.
II. has no right to vote.
III. has a right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) II only
(d) III only
Ans: (d)
87. Rajya Sabha is less powerful than Lok Sabha in terms of its financial powers because:
(a) it does not participate in the passing of money bill
(b) No Money Bill can be introduced in Rajya Sabha
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
88. Whose function is it to see that no money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a State without the authority of the legislature?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(c) Finance Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
89. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (IAS 2004)
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
Ans: (a)
90. If a Money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within fourteen days, then: (CDS 2004)
(a) Lok Sabha will reconsider it
(b) Money Bill will be rejected
(c) President will summon a joint meeting of both the Houses to discuss it
(d) The Bill will be sent to the President for his signature and consent
Ans: (d)
91. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has: (IAS 1998
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Ans: (d)
92. Consider the following statements: (IAS 2004)
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until 'Immediately before the first meeting of the House'.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
93. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament (CDS 2009)
(a) Vote on Account-Finance Bill-Appropriation Bill-Discussion on Budget
(b) Finance Bill- Appropriation. Bill Discussion on Budget-Vote on Accounts
(c) Discussion on Budget-Vote on Account-Finance Bill-Appropriation Bill
(d) Discussion on Budget-Appropriation Bill-Finance Bill-Vote on Account
Ans: (d)
94. Which of the following are not privileges enjoyed by members of Parliament individually?
I. Freedom from being arrested in civil cases during and 40 days before and after the continuance of a meeting of the House of Committee of which he is a member.
II. Freedom from being summoned without the leave of the House, to give evidence as a witness while Parliament is in session.
III. Unlimited freedom of speech providing immunity from court action for anything said in the House.
IV. Freedom to publish debates and proceedings of the House.
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
95. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled before a Bill for altering the area of the States is introduced in the Parliament?
1. The Bill must be recommended by the President.
2. The President should have referred it to the concerned State Legislature before recommending it.
3. The State Legislature must have given its consent on the Bill.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (a)
96. Which of the following actions are not performed by the President?
(a) Proroguing Parliament
(b) Convening a joint sitting if requested
(c) Dissolving the Rajya Sabha
(d) Causing the Budget to be laid before Parliament
Ans: (c)
97. The total number of members in a Legislative Council should not exceed that of a Legislative Assembly by :
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/4
Ans: (a)
98. The Chairman of the Public. Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
99. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is (CDS 2009)
(a) One-twelfth of the .total number of members of the House
(b) One-sixth of the total number of members of the House
(c) One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House
(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House
Ans: (c)
100. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency? (IAS 2008)
(a) Kangra
(b) Kachchh
(c) Ladakh
(d) Bhilwara
Ans: (b)
101. Which of the following is correct? (IAS 1994)
(a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies
(b) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President
(c) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting
(d) The Constitution explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Minister
Ans: (c)
102. Which is parliamentary committee In India normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition?
(a) Committee Assurances
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Privileges Committee
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Ans: (d)
103. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available? (Asstt Grade 1992)
(a) A member of the House of People appointed by the President
(b) A member chosen by Council of Ministers
(c) The senior most member of the Rajya Sabha
(d) The senior most member of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
104. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the: (NDA 1994)
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose
Ans: (c)
105. Consider the following statements:
1. A Bill pending in the Legislature of 3 State shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or Houses thereof.
2. A Bill pending in the Legislative Council of a State which has not been' 'passed by the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (NDA 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
106. A Bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament. without the recommendation of: (Central Excise 1993)
(a) the presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament
(b) the legislatures of the States concerned
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President
Ans: (d)
107. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2006)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
108. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it ?
(a) Solicitor-General of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Ans: (c)
109. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion of 'no confidence' in the government, before it can be admitted by the Speaker?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) 50
Ans: (d)
110. Who among the following decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not?([Asstt Grade 1994)
(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (b)
111. Consider the following statements:
1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker for Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. In the Warrant' of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (NDA 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
112. Which of the following is Financial Committees of Parliament in India? (IAS 1992)
1. Public Accounts Committee.
2. Estimates Committee.
3. Committee on Public Undertakings.
(a) I and III
(b) I and 11
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (d)
113. Consider the following statements:
1. The expenditure to be incurred by the Government and the revenue to be collected by way of taxes must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The charge of impeachment against the President of India can be brought about by only Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
114. After a no-confidence motion is admitted to the Lok Sabha, who decides a date for the debate?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
115. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker:
(a) is removed from the office immediately
(b) remains as Speaker until the first meeting of the House of People after the dissolution
(c) has to submit his resignation to the President of India within 24 hours
(d) can continue as Speaker for the period of 30 days only
Ans: (b)
116.
1. No Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India.
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [Asstt Comm 2008]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
117. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
118. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees: [CDS 2008]
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings.
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both land 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
119. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (COS 2011)
(a) Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
(b) To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order
(c) Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
(d) Give his assent to the bills passed by the House
Ans: (c)
120. How many times was the term of the Lok Sabha extended up to 6 years? (CPO (SI) 2010)
(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Thrice
(4) Never
Ans: (1)
121. In which of the Parliamentary Financial Committees is the Rajya Sabha not represented? (SSC (10+2) 2010)
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Expenditure Committee
Ans: (b)
122. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament? (IAS 2010)
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Ans: (b)
123. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct? (CDS 2012)
(a) A money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants
Ans: (c)
124. While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended by not exceeding (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) three months
(b) nine months
(c) one year at a time
(d) two years at a time
Ans: (c)
125. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to (CDS 2011)
(a) suspension of debate at the termination of a day's sitting of the Parliament
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
(c) the termination of a parliamentary session
(d) refusal on the part of the government to have the opposition look at the important document.
Ans: (b)
126. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to (BPSC 2011)
(a) the Comptroller and Auditor- General
(b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) the President of India
Ans: (b)
127. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? (BPSC 2011)
(a) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter
(b) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha
(c) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha
(d) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
128. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the (CSAT 2011)
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Ans: (c)
129. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha? (CSAT 2011)
(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits. The resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)
130. What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and "interim budget"?
1. The provision of a "vote-on-account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(CSAT 2011)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
131. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
(b) Lok Sabha can be extended only up to 6 years
(c) Lok Sabha is never dissolved' before 5 years
(d) All members of Lok Sabha are elected Representatives
Ans: (a)
132. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill, then which of the following is correct?
(a) Lok Sabha may or may not accept its recommendation
(b) Lok Sabha may not consider it at all
(c) President calls a joint session for passing of the Bill
(d) Bill is sent for further consideration
Ans: (a)
133. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to:
(a) their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(b) their role played in political set up of the country
(c) the recommendations made by the Vice-President
(d) their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
Ans: (d)
134. Under which of the following circumstances an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection? (IAS 1992)
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party.
3. If he speaks against the political party.
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
135. The distribution of seats in the Parliament are based on which of the following census?
(a) 1951
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1981
Ans: (c)
136. Which of the following can be abolished, but not dissolved? (IAS 1991])
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Municipal Bodies
(c) State Legislative Council
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
137. The Rajya Sabha has a life of (Railways 1991)
(a) 2 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 7 years
(d) Permanency
Ans: (d)
138. The budget in normal circumstances is presented to the Parliament on:
(a) The last day of February
(b) 15th March
(c) The last day of March
(d) 1st April
Ans: (a)
139. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (CDS 2009)
(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(b) The Estimates Committee
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Ans: (b)
140. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for (IAS 1990)
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
Ans: (b)
141. Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India? (Asstt Grade 1994)
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Union Ministry of Finance
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Inter State Council
Ans: (c)
142. Which of the following is true regarding the 'No Confidence Motion' in the Parliament?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of 6, months must lapse between the introduction of one No Confidence 'Motion and another.
3. At least 100 persons must support such motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (a)
143. How many times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill, passed by Parliament?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Ans: (b)
144. The term of the Lok Sabha:
(a) cannot be extended
(b) can be extended for another full term of 5 years
(c) can be extended for an unlimited period
(d) can be extended by 1year at a time
Ans: (d)
145. If a person elected to both the Union Parliament and a State Legislature does not vacate his seat in the State Legislature within the stipulated period then:
(a) his seat in the State Legislature automatically becomes vacant
(b) his seat in the Parliament will become vacant
(c) both the seats will become vacant
(d) he may be debarred from contesting elections in the future
Ans: (b)
146. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Speaker cannot be removed without a 2/3rd majority of the total membership of the House
(b) The decision of the Speaker whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill is not final unless ratified by the President
(c) No court of law can go into the merits of a ruling given by the Speaker
(d) Not all the proceedings of the House are addressed to the Speaker
Ans: (c)
147. The first no-confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha after independence was in the year
(a) 1954
(b) 1960
(c) 1963
(d) 1975
Ans: (c)
148. A team of men selected by the party in opposition to take over the different portfolios in case the party is able to wrest power is known as:
(a) inner Cabinet
(b) shadow Cabinet
(c) causus
(d) prorogation
Ans: (b)
149. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?
I. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid.
II. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.
III. The candidate lost the polls but secured 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election.
Select the correct answer using the code given below [CDS 2009]
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II and III
(d) I only
Ans: (a)
150. Which of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper House of the State Legislature as compared to the position of the Upper House of the Parliament?
(a) 1/3rd members of Rajya Sabha retire every second year while 1/4th members of Legislative Council retire every 18 months
(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks While there is such a provision in the case of the two House of Parliament
(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
(d) While Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members, the State Legislative Council has none
Ans: (b)
151. A member of Parliament has immunity from arrest, means:
(a) a member of Parliament cannot be arrested and put in prison in, a civil action within a period of 40 days before the commencement of the session and 40 days after the termination of the session
(b) a member of Parliament cannot be prosecuted in criminal proceedings
(c) an MP cannot be detained preventively
(d) an MP cannot be arrested for the contempt of court
Ans: (a)
152. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) No member of Parliament can proceed in a court of law for any disclosure he makes in Parliament
(b) A member of Parliament is protected for any defamatory speech he makes in the Parliament and then circulates its copies to the public
(c) A member of Parliament is protected for any speech he makes in the Parliament
(d) A member of Parliament has absolute freedom of speech
Ans: (a)
153. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Newspapers can publish Parliamentary proceedings
(b) Newspapers can publish any part of proceedings with the permission of the Speaker
(c) Newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an MP
(d) Parliament has freedom to publish its proceedings
Ans: (c)
154. Which of the following is true regarding the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? (Railway Apprentices 1993)
(a) One has to be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to die post of the Vice-Chairman
(b) One need not necessarily be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice-Chairman
(c) One has to be a member of either House 'of Parliament for election to the post of the Vice-Chairman
(d) There is an established convention that the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha belongs to the main opposition party in the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
155. Who among the following may belong to the Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? (CDS 1993)
(a) Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha who may be experts in different fields of knowledge
(c) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
156. A Member of Parliament can claim immunity:
(a) both from civil as well as criminal cases
(b) from civil cases only
(c) from criminal cases only
(d) cannot claim immunity either from civil or from criminal cases
Ans: (b)
157. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Prorogation of the House has the effect of wiping out the pending business
(b) Adjournment of the House does not affect the pending business and the same may be taken up in the next sitting
(c) The power of summoning and prorogation of the House is vested in the President, though it is exercised on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
(d) Dissolution of Lok Sabha means that pending business is wiped out
Ans: (a)
158. State which of the following statements is incorrect
(a) A Money Bill deals .with imposition, remission, alteration or regulation of tax
(b) A Money Bill deals with regulation borrowing money or giving of any guarantee by the Government
(c) A Money Bill deals with the money of the Consolidated Fund
(d) A Money Bill is one which provides for the imposition of fines or fees
Ans: (d)
159. Representatives of union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by:
(a) direct elections
(b) indirect elections
(c) nomination
(d) All the above means
Ans: (a)
160. Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority to
(a) impeach the Vice-President
(b) intimate impeachment proceedings against the Chief Election Commissioner
(c) recommend the creation of new All India Services
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
161. The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the Houses of Parliament can be:
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 20
Ans: (c)
162. In India, the system of proportional representation is used for:
1. election to the office of the President.
2. election to the office of Vice-President.
3. election of the members of the Rajya Sabha.
4. by elections
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and 11
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (a)
163. Article 75 includes among its provisions:
1. Prime Minister is to be appointed by the President.
2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible the Lok Sabha.
3. The President may appoint a non-member as Prime Minister who must become a member of Parliament before the expiration of six months.
4. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (a)
164. Under Article 87
1. The President may address either House of Parliament and require the attendance of members for that purpose.
2. The President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha.
3. Provision is to be made by rules regulating the procedure of either House for allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the President's address.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (b)
165. In which areas is a concurrent action of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha required?
1. Removal of Comptroller and Auditor-General.
2. Approval of emergency proclamation.
3. No-confidence motion.
4. Constitutional amendment.
(a) I and II
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Ans: (c)
166. Which of the following statements are not true?
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the sole and final power of deciding whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
3. In the creation of All-India Services, the Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha.
4. In 1976 the Money Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
(a) B and C
(b) A and D
(c) A and B
(d) C and D
Ans: (d)
167. The Parliament legislates on a State subject if:
I. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that to do so is in the national inter
II. during times of agency.
Ill. when the legislatures of two or more States resolve that it is lawful for Parliament to do so.
IV. a treaty or international agreement has to be implemented.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
168. What is the correct sequence of the given stages that a Bill passes through before becoming an Act?
1. Getting published in the official gazette.
2. Admitting amendments.
3. Reference to a joint committee.
4. Presidential assent.
(a) II, III, IV, I
(b) I, III, II, IV
(c) I, II, III, IV
(d) IV, III, II, I
Ans: (b)
169. Parliament is empowered to get all the following removed except:
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General
(b) Supreme Court Judges
(c) Chairman of UPSC
(d) High Court Judges
Ans: (c)
170. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse?
(a) Parliament
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) The President
Ans: (b)
171. All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India are credited to
(a) the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) the Public Account of India'
(c) the Contingency Fund of India
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans: (d)
172. Which of the following is not a function of Parliament in India?
(a) Providing the Cabinet and holding them responsible
(b) Criticising government policy
(c) Formulating policy for national development
(d) Securing relevant information on government action
Ans: (c)
173. A joint sitting may be called:
I. only in case of national emergency.
II. to enable a Constitutional Amendment to be passed in a hurry.
III. when taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other.
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)

• Key concept: The Judiciary (Question & Answers)
• Essential for UPSC CSE Prelims, State PSCs, SSC CGL & Railway exams.
• Comprehensive analytical coverage and factual pointers provided below.

The Judiciary (Question & Answers)
1. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in: (IAS 1997)
(a) the United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) the United States
(d) Canada
Ans: (c)
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Supreme Court's decrees and orders are enforceable throughout India.
2. The Supreme Court is not bound by its earlier decisions
3. In its power of judicial review the Supreme Court can declare a law unconstitutional on the basis of the objectives underlying the law.
4. The Constitution excludes no area from judicial review.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, III and IV
Ans: (b)
3. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates:
(a) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorises detention beyond that period
(b) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu before arresting him
(c) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
4. Who is appointed as an adhoc Judge of the Supreme Court ?
(a) A retired Judge of Supreme Court
(b) A sitting Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge
(c) An acting Judge of the Supreme Court
(d) A person fully qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
Ans: (b)
5. Which of the .following amendments curtailed the power of Judicial review of the Supreme Court and the High Courts?
(a) 24th
(b) 26th
(c) 42th
(d) 44th
Ans: (c)
6. Under a single, integrated, hierarchial judicial system, the High Courts in the States are directly under the:
(a) President
(b) Governor of the State
(c) Union Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (d)
7. If a High Court in India does not give the certificate to a case that it involves a substantial question of law, the Supreme Court:
(a) can never hear the case
(b) does not enter into the picture
(c) may hear the case if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution
(d) may hear the case if the President calls upon it to do so
Ans: (c)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
9. Which of the following, regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct ?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction. (IAS 1994)
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) II and IV
Ans: (b)
10. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court may issue a/an: (Stenographers' Exam 1992)
(a) decree
(b) ordinance
(c) notification
(d) writ
Ans: (d)
11. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a person?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
Ans: (a)
12. Under the writ of 'Mandamus' , the Court can:
(a) ask the person to be produced
(b) ask to let a person free for a temporary period
(c) order to transfer the case from one court
(d) direct the Government to do or not to do a thing
Ans: (d)
13. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (b)
14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right? (CDS 1993)
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (a)
15. The appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is that of:
(a) Prohibition
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Certiorari
(d) Mandamus
Ans: (b)
16. Match the following:
A. Mandamus 1. Direction to an official for the performance of a duty
B. Habeas Corpus 2. Release of an illegally detained person
C. Certiorari 3. Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction
D. Quo Warranto 4. Calling upon one to show by what authority he holds or claims a franchise or office
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (a)
17. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus - available against private individual as well
(b) Writ of Quo Warranto - available against subordinate courts only
(c) Writ of Prohibition - available against autonomous bodies only
(d) Writ of Certiorari - available against public servants only
Ans: (d)
18. The total number of High Courts in India at present is:
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 21
Ans: (d)
19. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is :
(a) 62 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 60 years
Ans: (a)
20. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the Constitution of India ? (SBI PO 1991)
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Union Cabinet
Ans: (c)
21. An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a High Court if the High Court :
(a) has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death
(b) certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court
(c) has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any subordinate court and has convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death
(d) In all the above cases
Ans: (d)
22. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are debarred from practising law:
(a) in any court other than the Supreme Court
(b) in any court of India
(c) in any court other than State High Courts
(d) in any Criminal Court
Ans: (b)
23. What is meant by 'Court of Record'? ([I. Tax 1994)
(a) The court that preserves all its records
(b) The court that maintains records of all lower courts
(c) The court that can punish for its contempt
(d) The court that is competent to give directions and issue writs
Ans: (a)
24. Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the Supreme Court can also meet at :
(a) any other metropolitan city
(b) any other major city
(c) any other place as decided by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the President
(d) any other Union Territory
Ans: (c)
25. Which of the following cases cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court ? ([MBA 1994)
(a) Disputes between two or more States
(b) Cases against encroachment on Fundamental Rights
(c) If one's property is forcefully occupied by the other
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Ans: (c)
26. Which is not an eligibility criterion for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court? (UDC 1993)
(a) must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years
(b) must have attained the age of 55 years
(c) must have been an advocate of a High Court for not less than 10 years
(d) must be in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist
Ans: (b)
27. 'Judicial Review' function of the Supreme Court means the power to: (RRB 1994)
(a) review its own judgement
(b) review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(c) examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(d) undertake periodic review of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
28. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Supreme Court ?
(a) It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person guilty of contempt of its authority
(b) It is a court of record and has all the powers of such court including the power to punish for contempt of itself
(c) Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when produced in any Court of Law
(d) It is bound by its earlier decisions and cannot depart from its previous decisions
Ans: (d)
29. The Supreme Court of India decides the disputes regarding the election of:
(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
(c) the President and Vice-President
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
30. Which of the following is true about the Supreme Court ?
(a) It has only the Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) It is the highest federal court of India
(c) It does not have the Original Jurisdiction
(d) It can amend the Constitution
Ans: (b)
31. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court ?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States
(b) Disputes between the States
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
32. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn from the:
(a) Grants-in-aid
(b) Contingency Fund
(c) Consolidated Fund
(d) Public Accounts
Ans: (c)
33. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to hold office until he attains the age of:
(a) 58 years
(b) 60 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 65 years
Ans: (d)
34. Which of the following statements regarding Judiciary in India are correct ?
1. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of Legislature and Executive.
2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the judicial hierarchy of the State.
3. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
4. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
35. In which of the following cases appeals cannot be lodged with the Supreme Court ?
(a) Constitutional matters involving a substantial point of law
(b) A sentence in a criminal case given by the lower court and confirmed by the High Court
(c) Criminal case in which High Court has given a death sentence J a criminal found non- guilty by a lower court
(d) Criminal case in which High Court after withdrawing a case from the lower court, has given a death sentence
Ans: (b)
36. Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Dispute relating to civil matters
(b) Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder
(c) Disputes between two States of the Indian Union
(d) Disputes between two citizens from two different States
Ans: (c)
37. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from their office by an order of the President passed after:
(a) an address by each House supported by the majority of the members present and voting has been presented to him
(b) a resolution of both Houses passed by a 2/3rd majority of total membership is presented to him
(c) a resolution passed by 2/3rd majority of total membership of Lok Sabha is presented to him
(d) an address by each House supported by a majority of total membership of that House and not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting has been presented to the President
Ans: (d)
38. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of:
(a) gross inefficiency
(b) imbecile conduct
(c) proven misbehaviour or incapacity
(d) senility
Ans: (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India
2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
40. When can the salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court be reduced during their term of office?
(a) If the Parliament passes a bill to this effect
(b) During a Financial Emergency
(c) As and when the President desires
(d) Never
Ans: (b)
41. The Supreme Court was set up under:
(a) Pitt's India Act
(b) Regulating Act
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1892
Ans: (b)
42. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was unsuccessfully sought to be impeached?
(a) Justice H.R. Khanna
(b) Justice A.N. Grover
(c) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(d) Justice Ramaswami
Ans: (d)
43. If the Parliament passes a law which is against the Constitution, it can be declared as unconstitutional by the:
(a) Supreme Court
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) A bench of High Court Judges
Ans: (a)
44. A civil case becomes a fit case for appeal to the Supreme Court if:
(a) it involves a point of Constitutional law
(b) the High Court certifies that it involves a point of law and needs interpretation of the Constitution
(c) it involves a sum of money over RS. 10,000
(d) the case had come to the High Court under an appeal from a subordinate court
Ans: (b)
45. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be :
(a) one half of the total strength of the Supreme Court
(b) seven
(c) three
(d) one-third of the total strength of the court
Ans: (a)
46. The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed:
(a) by the President
(b) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(c) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose
(d) by the President in consultation with Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
47. The rules for regulating the practice and procedure of Supreme Court under Article 145 of the Constitution are made by the:
(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court with the approval of the President of India
(c) Supreme Court alone
(d) Supreme Court in consultation with the Bar Council of India
Ans: (b)
48. Consider the following:
1. Supreme Court's power to issue writs is narrower than that of High Courts.
2. a citizen is free to approach High Court or Supreme Court as he chooses, whenever his Fundamental Rights are violated.
3. The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts throughout India.
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
49. Which is not the correct statement? The Supreme Court:
(a) is a watch-dog of citizen's liberty
(b) interprets the Constitution
(c) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice-President of India
Ans: (c)
50. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India:
(a) can never be reduced under any circumstances
(b) can be reduced during their term of office
(c) cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during a financial emergency
(d) are fixed by President of India
Ans: (c)
51. The Constitution of India has ensured the independence of the judiciary by:
(i) protecting salaries and service conditions of judges.
(ii) prohibiting the judges from carrying on practice in courts of law after retirement.
(iii) providing Single judiciary.
(iv) ensuring security of tenure of judges.
(a) ii, iii, iv
(b) i, ii, iv
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) i, iii
Ans: (b)
52. The Supreme Court is a court of record. This implies:
1. it can punish for its contempt.
2. its decisions are admitted as evidence and can riot be questioned in any court of law.
3. it has to keep a record of all the important cases that are conducted in India.
4. its decisions, once taken, are binding upon it.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
53. The main sources of law in India are:
1. The Constitution
2. Statutes
3. Customary law
4. Judicial decisions of superior courts
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
54. Judicial review in India does not extend to:
(a) the advice that the Council of Ministers gives to the President
(b) the discretionary powers of the Governors
(c) the privileges enjoyed by Parliament members
(d) Any of the above
Ans: (d)
55. Public interest litigation applies to any case of public injury arising from
(a) the breach of any public duty
(b) the violation of a constitutional provision
(c) the violation of the law
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
56. The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath or affirmation before entering upon office, conducted by:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President or Vice-President
(c) President or some person appointed, by him
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
57. To whom does a Judge of the Supreme Court address his resignation if he wants to leave office before his term is complete?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Union Law Minister
Ans: (c)
58. The power of judicial review ensures:
(a) the supremacy of the Supreme Court
(b) that Supreme Court can review its own judgements
(c) the constitutionality of laws
(d) justice by the subordinate courts
Ans: (c)
59. The right to seek an advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact belongs to:
(a) the President
(b) High Courts
(c) the Governor
(d) All of these
Ans: (a)
60. Match the following:
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Appellate Jurisdiction
C. Advisory Jurisdiction Cases Covered
1. Advice on any question of law as may be referred to the Supreme Court for consideration by the President
2. Case involving interpretation of the Constitution
3. Appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme Court
4. Dispute between the Government of India and a State
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 4 3 2
(c) 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3
Ans: (c)
61. A High Court consists of a Chief Justice and:
(a) at least 5 other judges
(b) such other judges as specified in the Constitution
(c) such other judges as determined by Parliament
(d) such other judges as determined by the President
Ans: (d)
62. Which of the following is not a power of the High Court?
(a) Supervision over all courts under its jurisdiction
(b) Jurisdiction over revenue matters
(c) Supervision over tribunals constituted by law relating to the armed forces
(d) Issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other purpose
Ans: (c)
63. The Constitution makes provisions to ensure the independence of judges. Which one of the provisions given below is wrong in this context?
(a) Though appointed by the President their removal is by a difficult process
(b) Their salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (or the State)
(c) A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the Government
(d) The conduct of a judge cannot be discussed in Parliament except upon a motion regarding his removal
Ans: (c)
64. The oath to a High Court Judge is administered by the:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chief Justice of that High Court
(c) Governor
(d) President
Ans: (c)
65. When can the salaries of High Court judges be reduced?
(a) If Parliament decrees it by two-thirds majority
(b) During a Financial Emergency
(c) If the State Legislature passes a law to the effect
(d) At no time
Ans: (b)
66. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the: (NDA 1994)
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Governor of the concerned state
(d) Chief Minister of the concerned State
Ans: (a)
67. The Constitution gives the powers of superintendence over all subordinate courts to the High Courts under Article:
(a) 226
(b) 227
(c) 228
(d) 229
Ans: (b)
68. The High Courts in India were first started at:
(a) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Bombay, Delhi, Madras
(d) Madras and Bombay
Ans: (a)
69. The High Court enjoys the power:
I. to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
II. to exercise superintendence over the working of courts and tribunals under its jurisdiction.
III. to make general rules and prescribe forms regulating the practices and proceeding of courts under its jurisdiction.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (d)
70. Who decides the number of Judges in a High Court?
(a) State Government
(b) President
(c) Governor of the State
(d) Parliament
Ans: (b)
71. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territory may be established by: (Railways 1990)
(a) President
(b) Parliament by Law
(c) Governor of the State
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
72. The salaries of the Judges of the High Courts are paid from the:
(a) Funds collected as fees for cases
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) State revenues
Ans: (b)
73. The number of States under the jurisdiction of a High Court is decided on the basis of:
(a) area and population to be served
(b) funds at the disposal
(c) intention of the government
(d) number of judges available
Ans: (a)
74. Which of the following is not a qualification for a person to be the Chief Justice of High Court?
(a) He should have been a Judge in any court of India for not less than 10 years
(b) He should be a distinguished jurist
(c) He should be a renowned writer in the field of law
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
75. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with:
I. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
II. Former Chief Justice of the High Court.
III. Other Judges of the High Court.
IV. Governor of the State concerned.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Ans: (c)
76. The High Court which has the distinction of having the first woman Chief Justice is
(a) Allahabad High Court
(b) Delhi High Court
(c) Himachal Pradesh High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
Ans: (c)
77. A retired Judge of High Court cannot:
(a) practice in the Supreme Court
(b) practice in any High Court of India
(c) practice in the High Court from where he has retired
(d) practice in any Court of India
Ans: (c)
78. Judge of the High Court can be removed from the office during his tenure by:
(a) the Governor, if the State passes resolution by 2/3rd majority
(b) the President, on the basis of resolution passed by the Parliament by 2/3rd majority
(c) the Chief Justice of Supreme Court on the recommendation of Parliament
(d) the Chief Justice of High Court on recommendation of State Legislature
Ans: (b)
79. The power to extend or restrict the jurisdiction of the High Court rests with:
(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the concerned State Legislature
(d) the Governor
Ans: (b)
80. A Judge of a High Court wanting to resign addresses his letter of resignation to:
(a) the President
(b) the Chief Justice of his High Court
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Governor of the State
Ans: (a)
81. The Constitution places the High Courts under the control of the Union in certain matters in order to keep them outside the range of regional politics. The Union exercises its control in the matters of:
I. transfer of Judges from one High Court to another.
II. being able, to establish a common High Court for two or more States.
III. determining disputes as to age of High Court Judges.
(a) I only
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (d)
82. Which of the following High Courts covers more than one State/Union Territories?
(a) Delhi
(b) Allahabad
(c) Guwahati
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
83. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System? (IAS 2006)
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand
(d) P.N. Bhagwati
Ans: (d)
84. The only Union Territory which has a High Court of its own:
(a) Delhi
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Daman and Diu
Ans: (a)
85. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of the following places? (CDS 2008)
(a) Nagpur
(b) Panaji
(c) Pune
(d) Aurangabad
Ans: (c)
86. Match the following:
Union Territory Jurisdiction (High Court)
A. Puducherry 1. Kerala
B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Mumbai
C. Lakshadweep 3. Chennai
D. Daman and Diu 4. Kolkata
5. Guwahati
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 5 3 4
(d) 1 5 3 2
Ans: (a)
87. The High Court having the jurisdiction in Judicial matters relating to' the largest number of States/Union Territories is:
(a) Kolkata High Court
(b) Kerala High Court
(c) Mumbai High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
Ans: (d)
88. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (NDA 2005)
(a) All the expenditure other than that which is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is to be submitted to the Lok Sabha in the form of demands for grants.
(b) No demand for a grant is made except on the recommendation of the President of India
(c) The Lok Sabha can refuse assent to any demand for grant
(d) The Lok Sabha can suggest an increase in the expenditure
Ans: (c)
89. Which one of the following statements is correct?(NDA 2005)
(a) The President of India is the custodian of the Constitution of India
(b) The Supreme Court of India can declare a law passed by any State/Union Legislature null and void if it encroaches upon the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India
(c) The number of Judges in a High Court is to be determined from time to time by the Governor of the State concerned
(d) The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the Governor of the State concerned on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
90. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2005)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
91. In India, the power to increase the number of Judges of the Supreme Court lies with: (Asstt Comm 2008)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Union Ministry of Law
(d) The Parliament of India
Ans: (d)
92. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian Judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? (CDS 2009)
(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Epistolary Jurisdiction
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction
Ans: (c)
93. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2010)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
94. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in the English language? (CDS 2012)
(a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
(b) A Legislation made by the Parliament
(c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 34B of the Constitution of India
Ans: (d)
95. Which of the following is/are the part/parts of the procedure for the impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A motion signed by at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or Chairman.
2. The motion is investigated by a Committee of three Jurists constituted by the Speaker or Chairman.
3. The Judge will be removed by the Speaker or Chairman if the Committee of three Jurists recommends.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (b)
96. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct?
1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.
2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.
3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2011)
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
97. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? (BPSC 2011)
(a) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950
(b) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country
(c) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial
(d) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial
Ans: (d)
98. The pension of a High Court Judge is charged to the:
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State where he last served
(c) Consolidated Funds of the different States where he has served
(d) Contingency Fund of India
Ans: (a)
99. Consider the following statements:
2. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
3. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts
4. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years' standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
5. When the Session judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (IAS 2004)
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
100. Which of the following States/UTs are covered by the Mumbai High Court?
2. Maharashtra
3. Goa
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
5. Daman and Diu
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
101. How many have High Courts in India jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)? (IAS 2008)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans: (b)
102. Which one of the following pairs of High Courts and their seats is not matched correctly?
(a) Karnataka - Bengaluru
(b) Madhya Pradesh - Bhopal
(c) Rajasthan - Jodhpur
(d) Kerala – Ernakulam
Ans: (b)
103. Which has High Court jurisdiction over the State of Arunachal Pradesh? (Railways 1994)
(a) Guwahati
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: (a)